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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Acoustics / May 2007Auditory "Parallel Hz"
Hi: Below is an example of "parallel Hz" http://img56.imageshack.us/img56/2427/clocksignalexample8is.gif If each clock signal is 1 GHz, and you have a 4 of them, staggered such that every 1ns part of the CPU can start, and finish, an instruction - making the effective 'clock rate' 4 GHz. Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If so, how would this be done? Thanks, Radium In sci.physics Radium <glucegen1@gmail.com> wrote: > Hi: > Below is an example of "parallel Hz" > http://img56.imageshack.us/img56/2427/clocksignalexample8is.gif > If each clock signal is 1 GHz, and you have a 4 of them, staggered > such that every 1ns part of the CPU can start, and finish, an > instruction - making the effective 'clock rate' 4 GHz. > Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like > using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If > so, how would this be done? The sum of any number of sine waves of frequency F is a sine wave of frequency F whose amplitude and phase depends of the individual amplitudes and phases. No. You are still a trolling idiot.  SignatureJim Pennino Remove .spam.sux to reply. > Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like > using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If > so, how would this be done? Yes, it can but you have to send them through the appropriate non- linear devices! And oh, yeah, you are still a trolling idiot! > Hi: > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If > so, how would this be done? sure, but you only need a one 1KHz toneput that into a limiter to square it up, generate harmonics, then filter out the 4th harmonic and you are done. > "Radium" <gluceg...@gmail.com> wrote in message > > Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like > > using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If > > so, how would this be done? > > sure, but you only need a one 1KHz toneput that into a limiter to square it > up, generate harmonics, then filter out the 4th harmonic and you are done. Except that square waves have no 4th harmonic. > Hi: > [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > such that every 1ns part of the CPU can start, and finish, an > instruction - making the effective 'clock rate' 4 GHz. No, it doesn't. It still takes n complete lock cycles to complete the instruction, and the next instruction can't start until the last is complete, in most cases, especially if the next instruction depends upon the results of the previous one. > Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like > using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If > so, how would this be done? No, it can't. You're still a troll and still a blithering idiot. >> Hi: >> [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > if the next instruction depends upon the results of the > previous one. Even if it could be done, wouldn't you need a 4 GHz signal to stagger the four 1-GHz signals at the proper intervals? That would kind of defeat the purpose.... >> Hi: >> [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > if the next instruction depends upon the results of the > previous one. With the proper software, OS and firmware the parallel computing model 'does' provide for faster throughput, but never direct factor of the number of processors. Incoming instructions are split into tasks which the various processors carry out simultaneously, providing a boost in speed, but as stated, all the results have to be collated at the output in order to make sense. >> Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like >> using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If >> so, how would this be done? In fact mixing any two frequencies electronically returns four separate frequencies in a process call heterodyning. The results are the original two frequencies, the difference of the two (in this case zero), and the sum. I'm not sure how this works with acoustics, although one uses the difference frequency (the 'beat' note) in order to tuned stringed and other instruments. jak > No, it can't. > > You're still a troll and still a blithering idiot. Realizing of course that any rationally-based discussion is unlikely to have ANY positive effect on Radium, who is oblivious to fact, here goes anyway. > In fact mixing any two frequencies electronically > returns four separate frequencies in a process > call heterodyning. Actually, no, that's not true. Simply mixing them in a linear process does NOT return anything BUT the original 2 tones. Only when the mixing takes place in a non-linear fashion are sum- and difference-frequencies returned. And the number of new components returned is dependent upon the order of the non-linearity For example, take 11 kHz and 12 kHz and sum them in a simple resistive summing junction, and out comes ... 11 kHz and 12 kHz. > I'm not sure how this works with acoustics, Same rules. > although one uses the difference frequency > (the 'beat' note) in order to tuned stringed > and other instruments. Nope, there is no "difference" tone per see, you're only hearing the envelope as a result of near- coincidental overtones causing the sum to move in and out of cancellation. If you simply add two sines of two different frequencies: F(t) = a1 sin (2 pi * 11k) + a2 sin (2 pi * 12 k) and plot the results, you'll see a 1 kHz sine imposed on the envelope, but run the resulting sine through an FFT or a spectrum analyzer, and you won't see any 1 kHz component, not unless there is some non-linear function going one. Think about it: try to show mathematically that the above equation is equal to: F(t) = a1 sin (2 pi * 11k) + a2 sin (2 pi * 12 k) + a3 sin (2 pi * 1 k) for all values of a3 except 0. So, having done this, let's see what utterly nonsensical reply we get from Radium, our own village idiot. >> Hi: >> [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > if the next instruction depends upon the results of the > previous one. Why would staggered clocks be any more useful that multiple clocked logic registers running in parallel off of one clock? In logic design, clock skew is something we try to avoid because it effectively reduces the settle time of all registers. >> Could a similar process be done in acoustics? IOW, something like >> using four 1 KHz sine-wave tones to produce 4 KHz sine-wave tone? If >> so, how would this be done? > > No, it can't. Right. It will produce the same frequency, but it will change the amplitude. >> No, it can't. > > Right. It will produce the same frequency, but it will change the > amplitude. That is, assuming you add four 1KHz signals, you will get a single 1KHz sine wave out, at some arbitrary amplitude related to the phase and amplitude of the input signals. |
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