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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Acoustics / July 2007



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Pressure as function of distance

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Chris Barrett - 09 Jul 2007 14:56 GMT
What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?  Where
does this relation come from?  I think it is

P(r) = 1/(4*PI*r)

but I can't seem to find any references to verify this.  I suppose there
might be a way to derive this from kinetic gas theory, but that might be
more effort than it is worth.
Don Pearce - 09 Jul 2007 14:59 GMT
>What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?  Where
>does this relation come from?  I think it is
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>might be a way to derive this from kinetic gas theory, but that might be
>more effort than it is worth.

In the far field (ie not close to an extended source) the pressure law
is simply inverse square.

d

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Salmon Egg - 09 Jul 2007 18:25 GMT
On 7/9/07 6:59 AM, in article 46923f20.286949578@news.plus.net, "Don Pearce"
<nospam@nospam.com> wrote:

>> What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?  Where
>> does this relation come from?  I think it is
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> d
Maybe you misspoke. At long distances from a source, the source looks like a
point. If total power is conserved, then the integrated intensity over a
surface is conserved. Intensity is proportional to the SQUARE of the
pressure. Thus pressure decays as 1/r and not as 1/r^2.

Bill
-- Support the troops. Impeach Bush. Oh, I forgot about Cheney.
Don Pearce - 09 Jul 2007 18:39 GMT
>On 7/9/07 6:59 AM, in article 46923f20.286949578@news.plus.net, "Don Pearce"
><nospam@nospam.com> wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>Bill
>-- Support the troops. Impeach Bush. Oh, I forgot about Cheney.

The Sound Pressure Level (SPL) falls by 6dB for each doubling of
distance (assuming free field propagation). That is an inverse square
law.

d

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http://www.pearce.uk.com

Salmon Egg - 10 Jul 2007 07:13 GMT
On 7/9/07 10:39 AM, in article 46927285.798620171@news.plus.net, "Don
Pearce" <nospam@nospam.com> wrote:

> The Sound Pressure Level (SPL) falls by 6dB for each doubling of
> distance (assuming free field propagation). That is an inverse square
> law.

That is true. But it represents an inverse square law on intensity, not
pressure. The law on pressure is merely inverse and not inverse square.

Bill
-- Support the troops. Impeach Bush. Oh, I forgot about Cheney.
Ken Plotkin - 09 Jul 2007 18:43 GMT
[snip]
>but I can't seem to find any references to verify this.  
[snip]

Have you tried any books on acoustics?
Chris Barrett - 10 Jul 2007 20:49 GMT
> [snip]
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Have you tried any books on acoustics?

Yes.  Not many books, but of the ones I've looked at, none give it as a
function of distance.
Jens Rodrigo - 09 Jul 2007 20:42 GMT
> What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?
> Where does this relation come from?  I think it is P(r) = 1/(4*PI*r)
> but I can't seem to find any references to verify this.  I suppose
> there might be a way to derive this from kinetic gas theory, but
> that might be more effort than it is worth.

Hi Chris,

This website will help you.
You ask for the sound pressure, our ears and the
microphones are sensitive to.
http://www.sengpielaudio.com/calculator-distance.htm
There we have the 1/r law.

Do not mix this with sound intensity or sound power.

Cheers

Jens
Eberhard Sengpiel - 09 Jul 2007 21:01 GMT
>> What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?
>> Where does this relation come from?  I think it is P(r) = 1/(4*PI*r)
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> There we have the 1/r law.
> Do not mix this with sound intensity or sound power.

This math lesson tells it all:
http://www.mathdaily.com/lessons/Inverse-square_law
1/r² is the inverse-sqare law,
but the sound pressure behaves like 1/r.
That is the function of distance for the sensivity of
microphones and our ears.

Kind Regards

Eberhard Sengpiel
Chris Barrett - 10 Jul 2007 20:52 GMT
>>What is the pressure of a sound wave as a function of distance?
>>Where does this relation come from?  I think it is P(r) = 1/(4*PI*r)
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>
> Jens

Thanks, but this does not tell me if I should use

P = 1/(4*pi*r)

or

P = 1/r

Both are consistent with the pressure relation

P (is proportional to) 1/r
Jens Rodrigo - 11 Jul 2007 08:57 GMT
> Jens Rodrigo wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>>>there might be a way to derive this from kinetic gas theory, but
>>>that might be more effort than it is worth.

>> This website will help you.
>> You ask for the sound pressure, our ears and the
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Both are consistent with the pressure relation
> P (is proportional to) 1/r

Hi Chris,

> P = 1/(4*pi*r)
This is not right.

Sound intensity I  is not sound pressure p
Sound Intensity I = P / 4 * pi * r²
Upper case P means power.
4 * pi * r² means volume of a circle (ball).

Sound pressure p (lower case p) is no energy or power.

"linear" sound field
p proportional to 1/r
p1/p2 = r2/r1
p1 = p2 times r2 / r1

"squared" energy field
I proportional to 1/ r²
I1/I2 = r2² /r1²
I1 = I2 times r2² / r1²

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sound_pressure
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sound_intensity

Regards

Jens
 
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