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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Particle Physics / September 2004



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Do free particles have spin?

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David Rutherford - 24 Sep 2004 18:56 GMT
Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
references or links.

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Gregory L. Hansen - 24 Sep 2004 19:59 GMT
>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
>references or links.

Polarization of light?

Werner and friends showed that a neutron really is a spinor.  They split a
neutron beam in an interferometer, and showed that the neutrons in one leg
must be rotated by 4*pi to return to their original state.

Polarizers and spin flippers are commonly used on neutron beam lines.

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Edward Green - 25 Sep 2004 01:14 GMT
> >Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> neutron beam in an interferometer, and showed that the neutrons in one leg
> must be rotated by 4*pi to return to their original state.

I seem to recall there is some macroscopic contruction involving
string which shares this property.  Do you know what I'm talking
about?

> Polarizers and spin flippers are commonly used on neutron beam lines.
Gregory L. Hansen - 25 Sep 2004 01:47 GMT
>> >Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>> >particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>string which shares this property.  Do you know what I'm talking
>about?

If it's what I think you're talking about, the professor in one of my
classes demonstrated it in cardboard and string.  There was one peice of
cardboard, and four students each holding a string, but I forget just how
the trick goes.  I wasn't sure how to relate it to the spin of an
electron.

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Edward Green - 26 Sep 2004 01:20 GMT
> >> >Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >> >particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> cardboard, and four students each holding a string, but I forget just how
> the trick goes.

I guess I'll have to look for the details.  I recall it did involve a
solid object attached to fixed points by string.

> I wasn't sure how to relate it to the spin of an electron.

Well, as an off-the-wall conjecture from us aetherial types, one just
might think it suggested that if a particle were connected to the rest
of the universe, that this peculiar "return to itself after 4pi
rotation" property just might be understandable in terms of a
realistic model.  Think of the particle as a topological defect in
space with the same connectivity as this toy model.
David Rutherford - 25 Sep 2004 02:44 GMT
>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
> Polarizers and spin flippers are commonly used on neutron beam lines.

Thanks Gregory. Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
particle spin?

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Gregory L. Hansen - 25 Sep 2004 13:04 GMT
>>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>Thanks Gregory. Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
>particle spin?

Neutrons are my thing, not charged particles.  But Google has quite a lot
to say about "polarized electron beam".

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David Rutherford - 25 Sep 2004 18:04 GMT
>>Thanks Gregory. Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
>>particle spin?
>
> Neutrons are my thing, not charged particles.  But Google has quite a lot
> to say about "polarized electron beam".

I searched Google under "polarized electron beam" and none of the links
explained the difference between polarization and spin orientation. I
know that, for a photon, they're different things. Is a polarized
electron beam the same as a spin oriented electron beam? If so, how do
you know if you are measuring polarization or spin?

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Gregory L. Hansen - 25 Sep 2004 21:51 GMT
>>>Thanks Gregory. Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
>>>particle spin?
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>electron beam the same as a spin oriented electron beam? If so, how do
>you know if you are measuring polarization or spin?

To polarize something is to orient its spin.  Back to the neutron world, a
neutron polarizer is also called a spin filter, because the beam is
polarized by removing the 50% whose spins are oriented in the wrong
direction.

Photons, with spin 1, have two orthogonal polarization directions, e.g.
vertical and horizontal.  (They're massless, so they can't be
longitudinally polarized.)  Neutrons, with spin 1/2, have two orthogonal
polarization directions, e.g. up and down.  Why aren't the neutron
polarizations vertical and horizontal?  Because that's not an orthogonal
basis for spin 1/2.  The number of polarization directions for a spin 1/2
particle corresponds to the number of values m_z can take: -1/2 or 1/2.  
The number for a massive spin 1 particle would correspond to m_z = -1, 0,
1.

Classically speaking, it's related to the way a field transforms.  
Electromagnetism is a vector field, neutrons or electrons would correspond
to a spinor field.  Gravity in general relativity is a tensor field that
would correspond to a graviton with spin 2.

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David Rutherford - 26 Sep 2004 08:57 GMT
> To polarize something is to orient its spin.

Are you saying that once something is polarized in a particular
direction, its spin is then oriented in that direction?

> Photons, with spin 1, have two orthogonal polarization directions, e.g.
> vertical and horizontal.

I'm assuming that you mean that the orthogonal polarization directions
are in a plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the photon.

> (They're massless, so they can't be
> longitudinally polarized.)

By longitudinal I'm assuming you mean along the direction of motion. But
if what I've read is correct, a photon's spin orientation is in the
direction of its motion (longitudinal). So the polarization and spin
orientation of a photon are orthogonal to each other, since the
polarization is orthogonal to the direction of motion. From your
comments above, however, you seem to be saying that spin orientation and
polarization are one and the same thing. Obviously, that can't be true
for a photon, since its spin orientation and polarization are in
different directions.

> Neutrons, with spin 1/2, have two orthogonal
> polarization directions, e.g. up and down.

Up and down relative to what? Are you saying that the polarization
direction is the same as the spin orientation?

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Gregory L. Hansen - 26 Sep 2004 14:09 GMT
>> To polarize something is to orient its spin.
>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
>By longitudinal I'm assuming you mean along the direction of motion.

Yes.

>But
>if what I've read is correct, a photon's spin orientation is in the
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>for a photon, since its spin orientation and polarization are in
>different directions.

Horizontal and vertical are one basis for photon polarization.  Another
basis is left and right circular.  They're related.

 |left,right> = (|vertical> +,- |horizontal>)/sqrt(2)

or something like that.  Recall that a rotation is described by finding
the axis of rotation and applying a convention (the right-hand rule) to
define the direction it points.  So the motion of the hands of a clock are
"pointing" into the wall, even though the hands move about the face.  One
way to change from a transverse to a circular polarization is to pass a
transversely polarized beam through a birefringent plate, one that has
different indices of refraction for different polarization directions, at
45 degrees, with a thickness so that one projection advances 1/4
wavelength ahead of the other.

>> Neutrons, with spin 1/2, have two orthogonal
>> polarization directions, e.g. up and down.
>
>Up and down relative to what? Are you saying that the polarization
>direction is the same as the spin orientation?

Up and down relative to whatever direction you choose, it's defined by
your arrangement of apparatus.  Up and down are just conventional labels,
they're also called |+> and |->, referring to the z-direction.  Parallel
and antiparallel to the beam are the usual choice.  A common technique is
to use a supermirror to polarize the beam, which is a series of glass
plates coated with magnetized nickel, which strongly absorbs neutrons of
one polarization but reflects those of another.  And the plates are bent
so that there is no direct line of sight through the device.
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David Rutherford - 27 Sep 2004 05:15 GMT
>>But if what I've read is correct, a photon's spin orientation is in the
>>direction of its motion (longitudinal). So the polarization and spin
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> 45 degrees, with a thickness so that one projection advances 1/4
> wavelength ahead of the other.

I don't know enough about the Dirac notation to know if you are saying
that spin orientation and polarization are one and the same thing. Could
you please answer yes or no to that question and explain why? And if
they aren't the same thing, how does the measurement of the polarization
of a free particle confirm the existence of its spin?

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Gregory L. Hansen - 27 Sep 2004 15:31 GMT
>>>But if what I've read is correct, a photon's spin orientation is in the
>>>direction of its motion (longitudinal). So the polarization and spin
[quoted text clipped - 25 lines]
>they aren't the same thing, how does the measurement of the polarization
>of a free particle confirm the existence of its spin?

They're the same thing.  The |kets> label states, they're like basis
vectors.

I'll go classical.  When a light wave is vertically polarized, the
electric field at a particular point in space will look something like,
with the first component an x value and the second a y value, third is z,

 E_v = E0 (sin(wt), 0, 0)

If horizontally polarized,

 E_h = E0 (0, cos(wt), 0)

E_h doesn't need a cosine, it could have been a sine, but you'll see the
reason I chose that phase.

Circular motion, in Cartesian coordinates, is given by

 (sin(wt), cos(wt), 0)

It's a vector sum of horizontal and vertical motion.  The "direction" is
given by the axis of rotation, which is mutually perpendicular to the two
components.

That's what I tried to express above.  Circular polarization can be
expressed as a combination of two transverse polarization modes.  The
field of a circularly polarized light wave doesn't point in the direction
of propagation, but a vector that describes how the field rotates
(clockwise or counterclockwise) points along the direction of propagation.
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David Rutherford - 27 Sep 2004 18:40 GMT
> It's a vector sum of horizontal and vertical motion.  The "direction" is
> given by the axis of rotation, which is mutually perpendicular to the two
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> of propagation, but a vector that describes how the field rotates
> (clockwise or counterclockwise) points along the direction of propagation.

But the polarization is always transverse to the direction of
propagation, not in the direction of propagation like the spin
orientation is, even for circularly polarized light. Just because you
can describe the rotation of the field by a vector perpendicular to the
plane of rotation doesn't mean that the polarization is now in the
direction of that vector. The direction of polarization is changing, but
it's always transverse to the direction of propagation. So even for
circularly polarized light, polarization and spin orientation are not in
the same direction, so they can't be the same thing.

If the spin is described by the same vector that describes the rotation
of the field, then what about linearly polarized light? That vector
would be the zero vector, since the field is not rotating. Does that
mean that in the case of linear polarization the photon has no spin?

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Gregory L. Hansen - 27 Sep 2004 20:15 GMT
>> It's a vector sum of horizontal and vertical motion.  The "direction" is
>> given by the axis of rotation, which is mutually perpendicular to the two
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>circularly polarized light, polarization and spin orientation are not in
>the same direction, so they can't be the same thing.

It's customary to use the axis of rotation as the "direction" of a
rotation, even if the electric field will never point in that direction.  
Yes, polarization and spin orientation are the same thing, and they're in
the same direction.  When spin orientation is rotating, it's also
customary to use the axis of rotation to describe its direction.

When you go to fancy math like wedge products, a rotation is no longer
described by the axis because in four or higher dimensions, there are an
infinite number of lines that are mutually perpendicular to a plane of
rotation.  It's described rather by specifying two vectors that define the
plane of rotation.  So instead of e_z, you'd call it e_x^e_y.  But we
usually don't do that in physics, we just give an axis of rotation.

>If the spin is described by the same vector that describes the rotation
>of the field, then what about linearly polarized light? That vector
>would be the zero vector, since the field is not rotating. Does that
>mean that in the case of linear polarization the photon has no spin?

In the case of linearly polarized light, it is not the custom to use an
axis of rotation.  
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Timo Nieminen - 28 Sep 2004 03:57 GMT
> > It's a vector sum of horizontal and vertical motion.  The "direction" is
> > given by the axis of rotation, which is mutually perpendicular to the two
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> propagation, not in the direction of propagation like the spin
> orientation is, even for circularly polarized light.

The direction of the electric and magnetic field vectors is perpendicular
to the direction of propagation. These are not the circular polarisation
vector. The circular polarisation vector is parallel or antiparallel to
the direction of propagation.

Note that for an EM wave with no orbital angular momentum about the
direction of propagation, the angular momentum density is fully described
by the polarisation and intensity.

Note that this angular momentum density can be mathematically and
experimentally be shown to be spin density.

> If the spin is described by the same vector that describes the rotation
> of the field, then what about linearly polarized light? That vector
> would be the zero vector, since the field is not rotating. Does that
> mean that in the case of linear polarization the photon has no spin?

The average value of the photon spin is zero. The spin of the EM field is
zero.

Note what happens when the beam is incident on a circularly-polarising
beamsplitter (ie a 1/4 wave plate and polarising beamsplitter).

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David Rutherford - 29 Sep 2004 07:52 GMT
> Note that for an EM wave with no orbital angular momentum about the
> direction of propagation, the angular momentum density is fully described
> by the polarisation and intensity.
>
> Note that this angular momentum density can be mathematically and
> experimentally be shown to be spin density.

Could you show me how mathematically and experimentally this is done, or
give me a reference or (preferably) a link that shows it? Thanks, Timo.

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Timo A. Nieminen - 30 Sep 2004 01:52 GMT
>  >
> > Note that for an EM wave with no orbital angular momentum about the
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> Could you show me how mathematically and experimentally this is done, or
> give me a reference or (preferably) a link that shows it? Thanks, Timo.

First, note that the momentum density of a plane EM wave is parallel
to the direction of propagation. Hence the orbital angular momentum
density in the direction of propagation is zero.

Secondly, calculate the torque per unit volume in the direction of
propagation exerted by a circularly polarised plane wave on an
absorbing medium. Compare this torque with the rate of decrease of
energy density in the direction of propagation. What, then, must be
the relationship between the energy density and the angular momentum
density? Note well that the component of the torque density found is
independent of the choice of origin, and is therefore spin angular
momentum.

A similar calculation for a birefringent medium gives the relationship
between spin density and polarisation.

OK, that's the simple calculation for a simple case. Problems 7.27 and
7.29 in Jackson, 3rd ed, also treat this case.

For a more thorough treatment of the maths, you'll need to resort to a
good book on field theory. Soper, Classical Field Theory has the best
and clearest treatment of this that I've seen. Jauch & Rohrlich,
Theory of Photons and Electrons is also OK. Beware missing "if the
fields fall off sufficiently quickly so that we can neglect surface
terms"!

The classic paper is J. Humblet, "Sur le moment d'impulsion d'une onde
électromagnétique", Physica 10(7), 585-603 (1943). Another early paper
of note is J. H. Poynting, "The  wave motion of a revolving shaft, and
a suggestion as to the angular momentum in a beam of circularly
polarised light", Proc. R. Soc. Lond. A 82, 560-567 (1909)

Also check:

S. J. van Enk and G. Nienhuis, "Commutation  rules  and  eigenvalues
of spin and orbital angular momentum of radiation fields", Journal of
Modern Optics 41(5), 963-977 (1994)

Stephen M. Barnett, "Optical angular-momentum flux", Journal  of
Optics  B: Quantum and Semiclassical Optics 4, S7-S16 (2002)

James H. Crichton and Philip L. Marston, "The  measurable  distinction
between the spin and orbital angular momenta of electromagnetic
radiation", Electronic  Journal  of  Differential  Equations  Conf.
04, 37-50 (2000) http://ejde.math.swt.edu/

Bruno Piccirillo and Enrico Santamato, "Light   angular   momentum  
flux   and  forces  in  birefringent inhomogeneous media", Physical
Review E 69, 056613 (2004)

As for experimental demonstrations, one must start with Richard A.
Beth, "Mechanical  detection  and measurement of the angular momentum
of light", Physical Review 50, 115-125 (1936).

Our own measurement are available on arxiv:
http://www.arxiv.org/abs/physics/0402021
http://www.arxiv.org/abs/physics/0310003
http://www.arxiv.org/abs/physics/0308113
http://www.arxiv.org/abs/physics/0309122

Also:
V.  Garcés-Chávez,  D.  McGloin,  M.  J.  Padgett,  W.  Dultz, H.
Schmitzer, and K. Dholakia, "Observation of the transfer of the local
angular momentum density of a multiringed light beam to an optically
trapped particle", Physical Review Letters 91(9), 093602 (2003),
http://www.st-andrews.ac.uk/~atomtrap/pub.htm

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David Rutherford - 30 Sep 2004 07:04 GMT
[snip]

Thanks Timo, and thanks to everyone else for your help in this thread. I
think I'll take some time and try to digest all the information you've
given me. Bye for now.

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Old Man - 26 Sep 2004 02:10 GMT
> >>Thanks Gregory. Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
> >>particle spin?
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> electron beam the same as a spin oriented electron beam? If so, how do
> you know if you are measuring polarization or spin?

Spin is has both magnitude and direction.  Polarization
indicates the spin direction.

> Dave Rutherford

[Old Man]
Bjoern Feuerbacher - 26 Sep 2004 16:56 GMT
[snip]

> Do you know of any evidence in support of free charged
> particle spin?

The experiments in which the anomalous magnetic moments of
electrons and muons are measured.

Bye,
Bjoern
Uncle Al - 24 Sep 2004 21:51 GMT
> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
> references or links.

Hey stooopid: TV picture tubes. Polarized accelerator e-beams.

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Paul Draper - 25 Sep 2004 02:42 GMT
> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
> references or links.

SLAC's collider has been firing polarized electrons at each other for some time now.

PD
David Rutherford - 25 Sep 2004 18:05 GMT
>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
>>references or links.
>
> SLAC's collider has been firing polarized electrons at each other for some time now.

Thanks Paul. From what I've read, at least for photons, polarization and
spin are two different things. For photons, the spin axis is in the
direction of travel and the polarization axis is perpendicular to the
direction of travel. Is that also true for electrons?

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Old Man - 26 Sep 2004 02:04 GMT
> >>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> direction of travel and the polarization axis is perpendicular to the
> direction of travel.

Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
cannot.  A photon has only circular polarization,
either in the direction of propagation, or opposed
to it, as indicated by the direction of its spin vector.

Is that also true for electrons?

A massive particle is allowed to have a transverse
spin component.

> Dave Rutherford

[Old Man]
Gregory L. Hansen - 26 Sep 2004 14:14 GMT
>Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
>can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
>cannot.  A photon has only circular polarization,
>either in the direction of propagation, or opposed
>to it, as indicated by the direction of its spin vector.

What if I prepare a photon in the state (|right>+|left>)/sqrt(2)?
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Old Man - 26 Sep 2004 23:52 GMT
> >Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
> >can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> What if I prepare a photon in the state (|right>+|left>)/sqrt(2)?

That's two photons, isn't it ?  Or is it a superposition
of orthogonal states of a single photon ? In the second
case, one can never observe such a state.  One will
observe either |left> or |right>.  Old Man isn't positive
on any of this.  Please clarify.

[Old Man]
Gregory L. Hansen - 27 Sep 2004 02:01 GMT
>> >Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
>> >can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>observe either |left> or |right>.  Old Man isn't positive
>on any of this.  Please clarify.

Just one photon.  Photons can be in a superposition of states.  It would
correspond to vertical polarization.  It can be prepared and observed with
transverse polarizers, or reflection at Brewster's angle.  Remember the
"spooky" thing about QM is all the wave mechanics is in play even if the
photon are coming one at a time.

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"Then they placed the ark of the Lord on the cart; along with the box
containing the golden mice and the images of the hemorrhoids."
 -- 1 Samuel 6:11

Old Man - 27 Sep 2004 02:13 GMT
> >Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
> >can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> What if I prepare a photon in the state (|right>+|left>)/sqrt(2)?

After the above reply, Old Man looked in "Quantum
Electrodynamics" by Landau & Lifshitz:

They say that, (|right>+|left>)/sqrt(2) is a legitimate
single photon wave function.  However, they also say
that it doesn't represent a "pure" quantum state, as do
the helicity states, and that, under axial symmetry,
only helicity is conserved.

So, Old Man is simply wrong.  Evidently a linear
polarizing "filter" or a reflector (which don't possess
axial symmetry) can absorb a circularly polarized
photon and re-emit it in a mixed state, such as
psi = (|right>+|left>)/sqrt(2), as Gregory suggested.

So, what happens if one attempts to detect linearly
polarized photons with a detector possessing axial
symmetry along the photon's propagation vector ?

[Old Man]
Gregory L. Hansen - 27 Sep 2004 02:46 GMT
>> >Electromagnetic waves, which consist of photons,
>> >can have linear transverse polarization.  A photon
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>the helicity states, and that, under axial symmetry,
>only helicity is conserved.

I don't understand what a "pure" quantum state means in this context.  
Whatever quantum state you have, to express it you must first pick your
basis.  What is diagonal in one basis won't necessarily be diagonal in
another, but so what?  If the spin of a neutron is (|+z>+|-z>))/sqrt(2),
is that a pure state?  Doesn't look like it.  But switch to a basis S,m_x
and the neutron polarization is |+x>.  Now it looks pure.  And if your
neutron beam has the polarization |+x> it will pass unimpeded through a
spin filter that passes neutrons in the state |+x> (e.g. a glass cell
filled with polarized 3He pointing in a direction transverse to the beam).  
You could still say the spin filter passes neutrons in the state
(|+z>+|-z>)/sqrt(2), but that's clumsy.

>So, Old Man is simply wrong.  Evidently a linear
>polarizing "filter" or a reflector (which don't possess
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>polarized photons with a detector possessing axial
>symmetry along the photon's propagation vector ?

 |vertical> = (|right> + |left>)/sqrt(2)

(With a possible sign or sqrt(-1) error.)  

 P = |<right|vertical>|^2 = 1/2

Half of them will get through.

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"In any case, don't stress too much--cortisol inhibits muscular
hypertrophy. " -- Eric Dodd

Igor - 26 Sep 2004 07:46 GMT
> >>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> direction of travel and the polarization axis is perpendicular to the
> direction of travel. Is that also true for electrons?

I think you are confusing the polarization axis with the polarization
plane.  They are perpendicular.  Besides, spin can really only be
defined to be a good quantum number if it points in the direction of
motion (or opposite to it).  This is required for commutation of
angular and linear momentum operators.
David Rutherford - 27 Sep 2004 05:13 GMT
>>>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> I think you are confusing the polarization axis with the polarization
> plane.  They are perpendicular.

From what I've read, the polarization axis is commonly taken to be in
the direction of the electric field, which is in the polarization plane,
i.e. the plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the
electromagnetic wave (or beam of light). Here's an excerpt from "An
Introduction to Quantum Physics", by A. French and E. Taylor, pg. 233:

    "In terms of the classical wave description, a beam of light is

     linearly polarized if its electric vector lies in a single plane
     that includes the beam ... . The polarization axis is defined as
     the line in this plane along which the electric vector lies at any
     point. Because electromagnitic waves are transverse, the
     polarization axis is always perpendicular to the direction of
     propagation."

> Besides, spin can really only be
> defined to be a good quantum number if it points in the direction of
> motion (or opposite to it).  This is required for commutation of
> angular and linear momentum operators.

Then polarization cannot be the same as spin orientation, since they are
not in the same direction.

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Applications:
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Igor - 27 Sep 2004 21:42 GMT
> >>>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >>>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
>       polarization axis is always perpendicular to the direction of
>       propagation.

> > Besides, spin can really only be
> > defined to be a good quantum number if it points in the direction of
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Then polarization cannot be the same as spin orientation, since they are
> not in the same direction.

But the only way you can define a plane vectorially is by a vector
perpendicular to it.  There is a lot going on in the polarization
plane.  There is an electric and a magnetic field, both of which can
rotate within the plane.  This is the property that essentially leads
to spin.  And on top of that, there has been a lot of talk lately
about orbital angular momentum degrees of freedom associated with EM
waves.  But in the end, all of these things are occuring in the
polarization plane, their angular momenta will always point
perpendicular to the plane, in the same direction as a unit vector
defining the plane.
Old Man - 25 Sep 2004 02:56 GMT
> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please
> give references or links.

Rutherford doesn't want references.  He's trolling and
want's to argue.  Old Man is willing to play for awhile.

0) The magnetic moment of the muon is predicted via
   QED to within experimental error.

1) NMR:  depends upon composite nuclear magnetic
   moment;  only peripherally dependent upon atomic
    properties.

2) The magnet moment orientation of lepton and fermion
   spin states can be sorted via a non-uniform magnetic
   field.

3)  Electron-positron annihilation generates either two (total
   S = 0) or three (total S = 1) photons,and the ratio thereof
   is accurately predicted by the statistics of spin sttates.

3) The only difference between a neutrino and an anti-neutrino
    is the direction of its spin vector WRT its propagation
   vector.  consistent with observations of nuclear electron
   and positron decay.  For muon neutrinos, see 0) above.

[Old Man]
Old Man - 25 Sep 2004 03:17 GMT
> > Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> > particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>     spin states can be sorted via a non-uniform magnetic
>     field.

Oops !! that's for atoms.  You don't need a non-uniform
field for free particles.

> 3)  Electron-positron annihilation generates either two (total
>     S = 0) or three (total S = 1) photons,and the ratio thereof
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>
> [Old Man]
[Old Man]
Constantine - 25 Sep 2004 09:57 GMT
> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
> references or links.

Spin is an intrinsic property of particles, independent of whether they
interact or not. An electron has always spin 1/2 no matter what happens to
it, it can not be changed. If you want to go into the details, check out the
representations of the Poincare group (1-particle states) and/or a QFT book.

Friendly, Kostas.
David Rutherford - 25 Sep 2004 18:05 GMT
>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> it, it can not be changed. If you want to go into the details, check out the
> representations of the Poincare group (1-particle states) and/or a QFT book.

Thanks Constantine. I know that, theoretically, free particles have
spin, but I'm interested in experimentally confirmed properties of
particles, not theoretical properties.

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Dave Rutherford
"New Transformation Equations and the Electric Field Four-vector"
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Applications:
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"Action-reaction Paradox Resolution"
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"Proposed Quantum Mechanical Connection"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/quantum.pdf

Constantine - 25 Sep 2004 22:55 GMT
> >>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> >>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> spin, but I'm interested in experimentally confirmed properties of
> particles, not theoretical properties.

I don't understand what you mean by "experimentally confirmed properties of
particles, not theoretical properties". Spin can be measured and has been,
for every particle (elementary or composite). It's value is not affected by
interactions.

Friendly, Kostas.
David Rutherford - 26 Sep 2004 08:56 GMT
>>>>Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>>>particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> I don't understand what you mean by "experimentally confirmed properties of
> particles, not theoretical properties".

The only experiment said to confirm electron spin that I knew of before
I posted my OP was the Stern-Gerlach experiment. That experiment used
atoms (silver, I believe), not free electrons. I was wondering if there
had been any spin experiments where they used free electrons (or other
particles).

Signature

Dave Rutherford
"New Transformation Equations and the Electric Field Four-vector"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/newtransform.pdf

Applications:
"4/3 Problem Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/elecmass.pdf
"Action-reaction Paradox Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/actreact.pdf
"Energy Density Correction"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/enerdens.pdf
"Proposed Quantum Mechanical Connection"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/quantum.pdf

Constantine - 26 Sep 2004 11:46 GMT
> The only experiment said to confirm electron spin that I knew of before
> I posted my OP was the Stern-Gerlach experiment. That experiment used
> atoms (silver, I believe), not free electrons. I was wondering if there
> had been any spin experiments where they used free electrons (or other
> particles).

I see what you mean. How about all the high energy experiments (using
collliders) utilising electrons? SLAC, DESY, the old LEP (gone now)...

Friendly, Kostas.
David Rutherford - 27 Sep 2004 18:41 GMT
>>The only experiment said to confirm electron spin that I knew of before
>>I posted my OP was the Stern-Gerlach experiment. That experiment used
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> I see what you mean. How about all the high energy experiments (using
> collliders) utilising electrons? SLAC, DESY, the old LEP (gone now)...

I don't know anything about these, I'll have to look into it. Thanks
Constantine.

Signature

Dave Rutherford
"New Transformation Equations and the Electric Field Four-vector"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/newtransform.pdf

Applications:
"4/3 Problem Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/elecmass.pdf
"Action-reaction Paradox Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/actreact.pdf
"Energy Density Correction"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/enerdens.pdf
"Proposed Quantum Mechanical Connection"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/quantum.pdf

Constantine - 28 Sep 2004 13:37 GMT
> I don't know anything about these, I'll have to look into it. Thanks
> Constantine.

You are welcome.
EjP - 27 Sep 2004 15:38 GMT
> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please give
> references or links.

The SLC and SLAC made and studied polarized electron beams for
several years:
http://mitbates.mit.edu/pesp2002/talks/Clendenin_SLACPES.ppt

Muon spin precessions are studied in detail in g-2 experiments:
http://www.g-2.bnl.gov/index.shtml

Muon and tau spin is verified by their decay distributions (start
by reading a decent textbook, like Halzen and Martin, then reading
the about the corresponding measurments).

Compton scattering is highly dependent on the polarization states
of both the target particle and the photon beam.
(Google "Compton Polarimetry" = 296 hits).

The list of confirmations of particle spin is almost literally
endless.  Perhaps if you ask a more specific question, someone
can give you a better answer.

-E
David Rutherford - 27 Sep 2004 18:41 GMT
>> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> endless.  Perhaps if you ask a more specific question, someone
> can give you a better answer.

I'm still not convinced that polarization and spin are the same thing.
What are the directions of the spin and polarization of an electron in
quantum mechanics?

Signature

Dave Rutherford
"New Transformation Equations and the Electric Field Four-vector"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/newtransform.pdf

Applications:
"4/3 Problem Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/elecmass.pdf
"Action-reaction Paradox Resolution"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/actreact.pdf
"Energy Density Correction"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/enerdens.pdf
"Proposed Quantum Mechanical Connection"
http://www.softcom.net/users/der555/quantum.pdf

EjP - 27 Sep 2004 20:03 GMT
>>> Is there any evidence for the existence of particle spin for free
>>> particles, that is, for particles not bound to atoms? If so, please
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> What are the directions of the spin and polarization of an electron in
> quantum mechanics?

For Fermions, like elections, polarization is basically the net
average  spin direction of a group of fermions.  The relationship is a
little more complex for photons because polarization is defined in terms
of the electric field vector, which, while related to the spin
state, is not synonymous. There's a bit of a discussion here:
http://www.mathpages.com/rr/s9-04/9-04.htm

-E
 
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