Why is mass^2 "proportional" to total angular momentum in mesons (Regge theory)?

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frank_k_sheldon@yahoo.co.uk - 19 Jan 2008 09:54 GMT

Regge theory states that mass m and angular momentum J
are related by
m^2 ~ c+d*J
for mesons of similar properties. It s also states that this
has to do with the elongated shape of mesons.
Can somebody explain this in simple physics?

I do not seem to find a simple explanation on the
internet - only research papers.

Thanks in advance!

Frank

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Mirror Space - 20 Jan 2008 08:06 GMT

On Jan 19, 11:54 am, frank_k_shel...@yahoo.co.uk wrote:

> Regge theory states that mass m and angular momentum J
> are related by
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> Frank

Hi Frank it is not obeyed this relation anymore!
You should look into my seminal papers, like Physical Review D, v.63,
054023
(2001), and also my sole Review at ArXiv: hep-ph/0110160 - 90 pages,
where you will find REAL answers to all your queries!

Sincerely Andy Inopin, PhD from 1983

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frank_k_sheldon@yahoo.co.uk - 20 Jan 2008 17:59 GMT

> On Jan 19, 11:54 am, frank_k_shel...@yahoo.co.uk wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
> Sincerely Andy Inopin, PhD from 1983

Well, as I said, I do not seem to find a simple explanation.
This review is another example of complicated explanations
for a simple fact.

It may well be that the relation is not exactly linear.
But why is it almost linear in the first place?

Frnk

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Autymn D. C. - 21 Jan 2008 15:06 GMT

The bondlength must shrink as much?

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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Particle Physics / January 2008

Why is mass^2 "proportional" to total angular momentum in mesons (Regge theory)?