The general wavefunction for a free particle is:
Y (x,t) = A cos( kx - wt) + iA sin (kx - wt)
and the complex conjugate is:
Y*(x,t) = A cos( kx - wt) - iA sin (kx - wt)
These are multiplied together to give,along with a proportionality
constant,
the probability of finding a particle at a particular place at a
particular time.It is not known why this should be so.Here is a
suggestion:
If the wavefunction already represents a probability before it is
squared,
then multiplying it by another wavefunction - the complex conjugate -
suggests that we are dealing with the probability of two events
occurring simultaneously.This could be the probability of a mass being
in a particular place at a particular time, and something that is
equivalent to the mass being at that place at the same time.Writing
new wavefunctions Y1 and Y2:
Y1 = A cos (kx - wt), Y2 = iA sin (kx -wt)
then Y = Y1 + Y2
and Y* = Y1 - Y2
This is the kind of relation between wavefunctions that one gets
for a hydrogen molecule, for example.
Does anyone agree that the product YY* could be
telling us about two different particles in the same place at the same
time?
John T Lowry - 27 Sep 2004 09:32 GMT
> The general wavefunction for a free particle is:
>
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
> telling us about two different particles in the same place at the same
> time?
Your error is in thinking the "Wave function already represents a
probability." Nope, it's just an amplitude, not a probability. For one
thing, it's complex, not necessarily real.
John Lowry
Flight Physics
alistair - 29 Sep 2004 14:28 GMT
In message Alistair wrote:
> The general wavefunction for a free particle is:
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
> If the wavefunction already represents a probability before it is
> squared,
In message Igor wrote:
>"What is the meaning of an event occurring that has a probability i?"
I think that provided we are talking about two identical particles at
the same place at the same time then an imaginary wavefunction squared
always gives
a real probability for them.The imaginary probability (whatever such a
thing is)
for each wavefunction does not represent the real world because
presumably the
two identical particles can never be separated.
Igor - 28 Sep 2004 16:20 GMT
> The general wavefunction for a free particle is:
>
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
> telling us about two different particles in the same place at the same
> time?
What is the meaning of an event occuring that has a probability of i?