Simple books on 4-vectors
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Oz - 03 Oct 2004 09:49 GMT Please do not be shocked.
I would quite like to read up on 4-vectors and if possible their care and feeding with respect to simple mechanics and the faraday tensor.
I am completely uninterested in relating this back to 'conventional representation'. For example I have absolutely no interest in any proofs showing how it relates back to maxwell or newton per se.
The book needs to be relatively cheap, and I would expect it to be short and obtainable in the UK.
It seems to me from my gleanings here that forms are very closely associated with this formulation. I rather get the impression that forms are to 4D as calculus is to 3D, although they are basically the same thing.
In essence I want to remove any baggage associated with the physics I learned at school (obviously some concepts will remain) and start learning as if I was at a school in a universe where c was 100mph.
Because I am of limited IQ, I suspect that I should be using a matrix notation and thus probably a co-ordinate based viewpoint. I hope if I ever grok it adequately it will not be that hard to move to a co- ordinate-free viewpoint subsequently, at least in principle.
The problem I seem to fall down on is that conventional textbooks tend to race through the basics at high speed on their way to distant more complex destinations. Introduced at the top of page 1, they are into forms by the bottom of the page. I am looking for something slower. A first chapter on (3+1)D representation. A second chapter on the equivalent of newtons mechanics. A third chapter on its calculus and so on.
Does such a book exist?
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Tom Knight - 04 Oct 2004 18:22 GMT > I would quite like to read up on 4-vectors and if possible their > care and feeding with respect to simple mechanics and the faraday > tensor. The book needs to be relatively cheap, and I would expect > it to be short and obtainable in the UK. Try this:
A Course in Mathematics for Students of Physics: Volume 1 by Paul Bamberg, Shlomo Sternberg used at $9.95 at Amazon.
> In essence I want to remove any baggage associated with the physics > I learned at school (obviously some concepts will remain) and start > learning as if I was at a school in a universe where c was 100mph. This book re-teaches calculus the way it should have been taught to you, including distinguishing forms and vectors.
Later, you might want to try the Frankel book "The Geometry of Physics, an Introduction."
Danny Ross Lunsford - 05 Oct 2004 12:42 GMT > It seems to me from my gleanings here that forms are very closely > associated with this formulation. I rather get the impression that forms > are to 4D as calculus is to 3D, although they are basically the same > thing. This is not at all true.
1) Forms in themselves are algebraic objects, and not related to calculus at all. They are generalized from "directed lengths" as the model for vectors.
2) *Differential* forms allow certain subjects in multivariable calculus to be better organized and presented than the traditional operations with Jacobians and change of variables.
3) The objects that appear naturally as differential forms in physics are just anti-symmetric tensors. Symmetric tensors are just as important, but unwieldy from the DF viewpoint.
4) There is nothing at all "tied to dimension" about either calculus or operation with forms (differential or not). All are completely general concepts.
> Because I am of limited IQ, I suspect that I should be using a matrix > notation and thus probably a co-ordinate based viewpoint. I hope if I > ever grok it adequately it will not be that hard to move to a co- > ordinate-free viewpoint subsequently, at least in principle. All that is overrated. In real life, an ability to aptly choose coordinates often distinguishes the clever (Feynman). There is nothing wrong with coordinates as such. "Coordinate free" mania is just a sort of "indicial racism".
> The problem I seem to fall down on is that conventional textbooks tend > to race through the basics at high speed on their way to distant more > complex destinations. /rant
The real problem is that books tend to be either too formalist (Bourbakian) in their layout, or too triumphalist (Wheelerian) to enable the student to judge for himself without being swamped by hyperbole. Unfortunately there is nothing to be done about it, other than to read older books by proven pedagogues.
> Does such a book exist? "Elementary Mathematics from an Advanced Standpoint", Vols 1 and 2, by Felix Klein, recently reprinted by Dover. This will provide an excellent foundation for more advanced study.
-drl
Oz - 05 Oct 2004 12:42 GMT Tom Knight <tk@csail.mit.edu> writes
>Try this: > >A Course in Mathematics for Students of Physics: Volume 1 by Paul >Bamberg, Shlomo Sternberg used at $9.95 at Amazon. $US 50 from amazon UK. <gasp>
>>Oz >> In essence I want to remove any baggage associated with the physics [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >This book re-teaches calculus the way it should have been taught to >you, including distinguishing forms and vectors. Is it solidly (3+1)D from the off?
Er, I've seen the 'contents' and I fear its just the sort of book I am NOT after.
Topics covered include many items previously dealt with at a much more advanced level, such as algebraic topology (introduced via the analysis of electrical networks), exterior calculus, Lie derivatives, and star operators (which are applied to Maxwell's equations and optics).
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Oz - 06 Oct 2004 14:03 GMT Danny Ross Lunsford <antimatter33@yahoo.com> writes
>Oz <oz@farmeroz.port995.com> wrote in message news:<0Ghi5zNTqmXBFwhT@farmeroz.po >rt995.com>... [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > >This is not at all true. Good, that means I am confused....
>1) Forms in themselves are algebraic objects, and not related to >calculus at all. They are generalized from "directed lengths" as the >model for vectors. OK. As usual I have to figure out what you really mean here. Am I to guess that they are nD equivalents of vectors? A brief description would be gratefully appreciated.
>2) *Differential* forms allow certain subjects in multivariable >calculus to be better organized and presented than the traditional >operations with Jacobians and change of variables. <ungh> Does that mean I have to put differential (a very long word with lots of characters) in front every time? A brief description would be gratefully appreciated (again).
>3) The objects that appear naturally as differential forms in physics >are just anti-symmetric tensors. Symmetric tensors are just as >important, but unwieldy from the DF viewpoint. Oh, that's a pity. I rather assumed one tool would do the job neatly and clearly, at least in (simple) physics.
>4) There is nothing at all "tied to dimension" about either calculus >or operation with forms (differential or not). All are completely >general concepts. Indeed, I expressed myself badly. I rather imagined that if one were to be working an a (3+1)D space that 'conventional' tools and representations might be unwieldy and have a tendency to obscure rather than clarify. Of course I imagined that those working in these areas would have developed a notation that conceals the nuts and bolts and thus showed the physics more clearly. I am getting the horrible feeling that this might not be so.
>> Because I am of limited IQ, I suspect that I should be using a matrix >> notation and thus probably a co-ordinate based viewpoint. I hope if I [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >wrong with coordinates as such. "Coordinate free" mania is just a sort >of "indicial racism". Indeed. However indices do clutter things up quite a bit, particularly when the indices have indices...
>> The problem I seem to fall down on is that conventional textbooks tend >> to race through the basics at high speed on their way to distant more [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >Felix Klein, recently reprinted by Dover. This will provide an >excellent foundation for more advanced study. Hmm, dunno if I'm up to further anything.... However the book is reasonably priced and a search on the web suggests it will have a bunch of interesting things, even if it doesn't help me on this particular quest. So I will follow your advice and get it.
Only seems to be vol 1 about just now but still.
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J. J. Lodder - 06 Oct 2004 14:03 GMT > Please do not be shocked. > [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > ever grok it adequately it will not be that hard to move to a co- > ordinate-free viewpoint subsequently, at least in principle. I guess that what you want doesn't exist. The whole point of introducing vectors to begin with is that having vectors allows you to be coordinate-free.
And a coordinate-free vector -is- a much simpler concept: it is just something that transforms in the right way under a given set of symmetry operations. (like rotations in space) A vector is just anything that transforms like a vector.
> The problem I seem to fall down on is that conventional textbooks tend > to race through the basics at high speed on their way to distant more [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > Does such a book exist? I hesitate to say it but (supposing you mastered standard linear algebra in vector form) you might try the introductory chapters of the 'Gravitation' phonebook by Misner e.a.
Real mathematicians seem to dislike its pictoral approach thoroughly, with its 'bongs of the bell', when 'piercing sheets', and its egg-crates, so perhaps you might like it.
Not cheap, but perhaps you could borrow it somewhere?
Jan
J. J. Lodder - 06 Oct 2004 14:03 GMT > Please do not be shocked. > [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > ever grok it adequately it will not be that hard to move to a co- > ordinate-free viewpoint subsequently, at least in principle. I guess that what you want doesn't exist. The whole point of introducing vectors to begin with is that having vectors allows you to be coordinate-free.
And a coordinate-free vector -is- a much simpler concept: it is just something that transforms in the right way under a given set of symmetry operations. (like rotations in space) A vector is just anything that transforms like a vector.
> The problem I seem to fall down on is that conventional textbooks tend > to race through the basics at high speed on their way to distant more [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > Does such a book exist? I hesitate to say it but (supposing you mastered standard linear algebra in vector form) you might try the introductory chapters of the 'Gravitation' phonebook by Misner e.a.
Real mathematicians seem to dislike its pictoral approach thoroughly, with its 'bongs of the bell', when 'piercing sheets', and its egg-crates, so perhaps you might like it.
Not cheap, but perhaps you could borrow it somewhere?
Jan
Greg Egan - 07 Oct 2004 13:05 GMT In article <ck0qf2$v11$1@lfa222122.richmond.edu>, Oz <oz@farmeroz.port995.com> wrote:
[snip]
> A brief description would be gratefully appreciated. Here's a brief overview of vectors and forms, from someone who was pretty much in your shoes a few years ago.
We all have a reasonable intuitive idea of what a vector is: something, like a velocity, that has a direction and a magnitude.
Imagine a stone thrown into the air. If you think about the path the stone follows in 3-dimensional space, you can mark each point along that path with the time when the stone is at that point. So the motion of the stone gives, not only a path through 3-space, but a path with a parameter, t, associated with every point. You can think of drawing the path with little tick-marks along it: t=0, t=1, t=2, etc. And mathematically, we can think of this path as a function C(t) from the real numbers to the space the stone moves through.
The velocity of the stone (at any particular time t_0) has a direction that is tangent to the curve C that it follows through space, at the particular point C(t_0), and its magnitude will depend on how far along the path a given increase in t carries the stone. So if the t=0, t=1, t=2 tick-marks are *further apart*, the velocity will be bigger, because the stone will move further in one second.
Exactly what else we can say depends on what space the stone is moving through, but it's worthwhile just leaving it at that for now, and seeing that the idea of a vector makes perfect sense when all you have is a path through some space with a parameter marked along it. This works whether the space is flat, curved, 3-dimensional, n-dimensional, whatever.
In 4-dimensional spacetime, you can think of an object's world line, with the time ticked off by a clock moving with that object as the parameter along the world line. The 4-velocity vector defined this way is the natural velocity to use in special and general relativity.
Now, there's a slightly different concept that also involves direction and magnitude, which also works in any number of dimensions. This is known as a 1-form.
Imagine a map of air pressure, with lines of constant pressure -- isobars -- marked on it. It's clear that the pressure gradient has a direction and a magnitude. But it's a different concept than the one we get from marking a parameter along a single curve. The key to the difference is that, in a sense, it's opposite and complementary to the notion of a vector. A stone's velocity is *greater* if the tickmarks for each time interval are *further* apart, whereas a pressure gradient becomes *less* when the isobars are further apart, and greater when they're crowded closer together. This leads to opposite rules when we change coordinate systems (for example, if we simply change units): a velocity of 1 metre per second becomes 100 centimetres per second, but a pressure gradient of 1 Pascal per metre becomes 0.01 Pascals per centimetre.
A 1-form is the notion of direction and magnitude you get when you imagine a stack of curves on a map, or surfaces in 3-space, or, in general, (n-1)-dimensional hypersurfaces in n-space.
You can combine a vector and a 1-form to get a number: if you have a stone moving at 1 metre per second through a pressure gradient of 1 Pascal per metre, then, for the stone, the pressure will change at 1 Pascal per second. Note that this result is completely independent of the (spatial) coordinates used, so that if we change units to centimetres, the 100 centimetres per second x 0.01 Pascals per centimetre, naturally, gives the same final result.
If this is a 1-form, what is a 2-form? Well, I won't go into that unless you really want me to, except to say that you can get an n-form from an (n-1)-form by taking a kind of derivative. A scalar function (such as air pressure) can be thought of as a 0-form, and the process of taking the gradient to get a 1-form can be generalised. That generalisation nicely generalises some operations that might be familiar to you from 3-dimensional calculus/physics: grad, div, and curl.
When you talk about studying 4-vectors in (3+1)D, I think what you're after is a good book on special relativity that uses the natural 4-dimensional objects (4-velocity, 4-momentum etc.), rather than making everything messy by projecting things down to 3 dimensions all the time, and making SR look like a kind of "distortion" or "correction" to Newtonian physics. You might want to look at "Spacetime Physics" by Taylor and Wheeler.
Ted Erler - 11 Oct 2004 09:51 GMT Dear Oz,
I think what you're looking for is done quite nicely in the language of Clifford Algebra. Take a look at, for example,
David Hestenes, Space-Time Algebra
The essential idea is to introduce a basis of algebraic objects \gamma_\mu satisfying, {\gamma_\mu,\gamma_\nu}=2g_{\mu\nu} These are what we already know of as "Dirac matrices."
A 4-vector can be expressed in the form A=A^\mu\gamma_\nu, which is manifestly coordinate invariant. It is simple to verify that, AB=A\dot B + A\wedge B, where A\dot B is the Lorentzian dot product (just like the dot product in 3D) and A\wedge B is the wedge product, which can be thought of a a generalization of the 3D cross product to four dimensions.
Unlike in 3D, however, A\wedge B is not another 4-vector---rather it is something called a bivector, which can be visualized as an oriented plane in 4D. In four dimensions, there are 6 independent planes so planes are really different things from vectors, unlike the case in 3D. A good example of a bivector is the electromagnetic field strength tensor, F=F^{\mu\nu}\gamma_\mu \wedge \gamma_nu.
Clifford Algebra really just a nice way of generalizing the Grassmann algebra of differential forms to situations---like special relativity---where we have a metric and some notion of a dot product. I think it is the most elegant and essentially unique generalization of the coordinate invariant 3D vector algebra to 4 dimensions.
I hope you find these comments useful. Ted
> Please do not be shocked. > [quoted text clipped - 31 lines] > > Does such a book exist? Greg Egan - 11 Oct 2004 09:51 GMT In article <yxFT0qE76TZBFwDx@farmeroz.port995.com>, Oz <oz@farmeroz.port995.com> wrote:
>Greg Egan wrote: [snip]
> >A 1-form is the notion of direction and magnitude you get when you > >imagine a stack of curves on a map, or surfaces in 3-space, or, in > >general, (n-1)-dimensional hypersurfaces in n-space. > > OK, that's an n-form. Great. ^^^^^^ 1-form
Sorry to nitpick, but it's a 1-form in n dimensions, which is *not* the same thing as an n-form. In d-dimensional space, you can have 0-forms, 1-forms, 2-forms, ..., d-forms. Don't confuse the "degree" of the form with the dimension of the space. The dimension of the space puts an upper limit on the degree, but doesn't define it.
> There was me thinking it was something weird. > The thing is, though, that I get the impression that spaces with [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > physics. Having a dimensionality-variable switch between them seems, > well, a kludge. Different dimensions are *not* all that different. I think you're thinking about converting between a form-based description of EM and the vector-based description taught in high school, where there are some details that necessarily depend on the particular dimensions 3 and 4 (and in a sense also on the history of how the subject was developed) ... but the generalities of the mathematics really are very, very regular.
But the ability (and sometimes the necessity) to convert between 1-forms and vector fields is a fact of life in physics, so instead of lamenting it, you should try to understand it more deeply.
I'll state a few things about the generalities:
(a) If you don't have a metric on your space, then 1-forms and vector fields cannot be interconverted. (For example, if there's no metric to define the notion of orthogonality, you can't define a vector field orthogonal to the isobars on a weather map, so you can't convert the pressure gradient from a 1-form into a vector field.)
(b) If you *do* have a metric, then you *can* convert 1-forms into vector fields and vice versa.
One way to do this is to think of a metric g as something that gives you a number when you feed it two vectors: the "dot product" of the two vectors, v.w=g(v,w). Also, you can think of a 1-form f as something that (at a given point in space) gives you a number when you feed it a vector, w: this number is usually written <f,w>, and it is found by computing the rate at which the vector w takes you across the surfaces of the 1-form f (e.g. how fast a velocity takes you across pressure isobars).
Then, given a vector v at each point in space, we can define a corresponding 1-form f by the equation:
<f,w> = g(v,w)
for all vectors w at that point.
And given a 1-form f, at each point we can always find a vector v that satisfies this equation for all vectors w.
What does this interconversion mean geometrically? In our weather map example, if a vector field x always points *along* the isobars, i.e. tangent to them, never crossing them, then we will have <f,x>=0. And the vector field v that satisfies our equation for being the equivalent to the pressure gradient f will satisfy:
g(v,x) = <f,x> = 0
So the vector field v will have a dot product of zero with the tangents to the isobars, i.e. it will be orthogonal to the isobars.
(c) On an oriented space with a metric, you can define the Hodge *, which lets you convert p-forms into (d-p)-forms, where d is the dimension of the space. For example, in 4-d spacetime with a metric, you can use the Hodge * to interconvert 1-forms and 3-forms, and also to convert 2-forms into other 2-forms. But I need to explain 2-forms, 3-forms, etc. before I can say what any of this really means.
> >If this is a 1-form, what is a 2-form? Well, I won't go into that unless > >you really want me to, > > Absolutely (if you can stand it) YES! There are a number of ways to go from 1-forms to 2-forms (and 3-forms, etc.), and I'll say a bit about each one.
(a) The geometric picture
You can think of a 1-form as a stack of lines (or planes, or hyperplanes) in 2-d, 3-d or n-d space. These are the kind of thing you can get by taking the contours of a scalar function on the space, though it's important to understand that not all such "stacks" will be the contour lines of any scalar function.
Now, imagine superimposing the stacks from two 1-forms. In two dimensions, the two stacks of lines will combine to break up the space into a grid of little quadrilaterals -- so long as the two stacks aren't the same, or parallel, in which case the result will be degenerate and the elements of the grid will be empty.
In three dimensions, you have the same general thing, but the two stacks of planes divide the space up into quadrilateral "tubes" that can (in general) snake around in complicated ways, disappear, re-appear etc. In four dimensions, the two stacks of hyperplanes again divide up the space into objects with quadrilateral cross-sections, but instead of being tubes, they now have two free dimensions to snake around in.
The common pattern, though, is that if you have a *two-dimensional* surface in any of these spaces, it will intersect the pattern formed by the two stacks to make something that looks like the 2-dimensional case: a grid-like pattern of quadrilaterals.
This thing, in any number of dimensions, is known as a 2-form. If the 1-forms that you combined to make it are f and g, we write this 2-form (call it b) as:
b = f ^ g
The quadrilaterals actually have a direction associated with them as well (a little arrow going clockwise or counterclockwise around the perimeter), and this changes sign if we combine the two 1-forms in the opposite order:
f ^ g = - (g ^ f)
>From this antisymmetry, it follows that: f ^ f = 0
which also makes sense because if you try to make a grid by combining the same stack of lines/planes with itself, the result is degenerate.
Now, we can extend this process to include more 1-forms. If p is any number from 0 up to d, the dimension of the space, you can combine 1-forms f_1, ... f_p to make a p-form b:
b = f_1 ^ f_2 ^ f_3 ^ ... ^ f_p
The symbol "^" is called the wedge product.
In general, a p-form created by superimposing p different 1-forms will break up the d-dimensional space into cells that have p pairs of hyperplanes as their walls, and (d-p) "free" dimensions to "snake around in".
In two dimensions:
1-forms are stacks of lines (for example contour lines), and the gaps between the lines in these stacks have one free dimension; 2-forms break up the space into little quadrilaterals, with two pairs of walls and no free dimension.
In three dimensions:
1-forms are stacks of planes, and the gaps between those planes have two free dimensions; 2-forms are "quadrilateral tubes", with one free dimension; 3-forms are "cuboids", with 3 pairs of walls and no free dimension.
In four dimensions:
1-forms are stacks of 3-d hyperplanes, and the gaps between those hyperplanes have 3 free dimensions; 2-forms are "quadrilateral regions", with two pairs of 3-d hyperplane walls, and 2 free dimensions 3-forms are "cuboidal tubes", with 3 pairs of 3-d hyperplane walls, and 1 free dimension; 4-forms are "hypercuboids", with 4 pairs of 3-d hyperplane walls, and no free dimension.
And in a space of whatever dimension d, if you slice things down to dimension p by imagining a p-dimensional surface cutting through the space, the p-form's structures will intersect that p-dimensional surface by dividing it up into little p-dimensional cuboids, with no free dimensions left over.
One caveat I need to add is that, as well as the p-forms created as the wedge products of 1-forms, linear combinations of all these p-forms are also p-forms, and those linear combinations generally won't be expressible as wedge products of 1-forms, with the corresponding nice geometrical picture.
In other words:
a (f ^ g) + b (k ^ l)
where a and b are real numbers and f,g,k, and l are 1-forms, is a 2-form ... but this 2-form generally *won't* be expressible as (q ^ r) where q and r are 1-forms. The nice geometrical pictures for f^g and k^l individually remain, but you need to keep in mind that not all 2-forms can be described by a *single* geometrical picture.
Also, while this intuitive geometrical picture involves finite numbers of objects, in reality this is just a way to approximate and visualise things that really happen in the limit of infinitesimals. When a stone is travelling through a pressure gradient, you don't really count a discrete number of isobars that it crosses, you use calculus to compute an instantaneous rate at a point. Similar caveats apply to everything here: it's just a discrete approximation, and an aid to understanding what's going on.
(b) You can think of a 1-form as a linear function that takes a vector at each point in space and gives you a number. In the geometrical picture, that number is "how fast" the vector crosses the stack of planes of the 1-form.
Similarly, you can think of a p-form as a linear function of p different vectors at each point. So a p-form b is a function:
b(v_1, ..., v_p)
that is linear in each of its arguments. It is also antisymmetric, so that if you swap any pair of arguments, you change the sign of the result.
If we've built a p-form as the wedge product of p 1-forms f_1, ... f_p, then:
(f_1 ^ f_2 ^ ... ^ f_p)(v_1, v_2, ..., v_p)
= sum of signed permutations of the arguments of f_1(v_1) ... f_p(v_p).
For example:
(f_1 ^ f_2)(v_1, v_2) = f_1(v_1)f_2(v_2) - f_1(v_2)f_2(v_1)
In the geometrical picture, p vectors v_1 ... v_p define a little piece of a p-dimensional surface in the space, and b(v_1, ... v_p) is the number of p-dimensional hypercuboids of the p-form that intersect this small surface. For example, two vectors define a little parallelogram, and the number of quadrilaterals of a sliced 2-form that lie in that parallelogram is the value of the 2-form evaluated as a linear function of those two vectors.
(c) You can get from a p-form to a (p+1)-form by a derivative operation. The simplest example of this is when you move from a scalar function on the space, f, which is a 0-form, to a 1-form which represents the gradient of f, which is written df.
Exactly what is the 1-form df? Geometrically, it is the contour lines of the function f. Algebraically, at each point df has to define a linear function of vectors. Now, if we go back to our notion of vectors as tangents to parameterised paths through the space, if we have a path C(t) we can write the vector at some point on that path as @_t (where I'm using "@" as an ASCII substitute for the partial derivative symbol). Using that notation:
<df,@_t> = df(C(t))/dt, the derivative of the function f with respect to t
If we have coordinates x^i, i=1,..d on our space, then these coordinates are, of course, scalar functions on the space. We can use these coordinates to produce both vector fields and 1-forms.
The coordinate 1-forms are just dx^i, the contours of the coordinate functions. For example, in R^3 with x, y and z as coordinates, dx is a stack of planes parallel to the yz plane, i.e. planes which range over all possible values of y and z, and each have a fixed value of x.
The coordinate vector fields @_x^j at any point are the vectors whose paths are given by varying one coordinate, x^j, as the path parameter, and keeping the others fixed. In R^3, the vector field @_x at any point (x_0,y_0,z_0) has as its defining path the line C(x)=(x,y_0,z_0).
>From these definitions, it follows that: <dx^i,@_x^j> = @x^i/@x^j = delta^i_j = 1 if i=j, otherwise 0
The coordinate 1-forms form a basis of all the 1-forms (at least in the region of the space where these particular coordinates apply), and similarly the coordinate vector fields form a basis of all vectors fields in that region.
Now, getting back to the operator d, which is known as the "exterior derivative" ... we've defined it for 0-forms, now we need to define it for 1-forms. The following properties hold:
(i) d (df) = 0 (ii) d (h df) = dh ^ df (iii) d is linear
where f and h are scalar functions, and df and dh are gradient 1-forms. It can be shown that *any* 1-form can be written as a linear combination of coordinate 1-forms, so this is enough to give the exterior derivative of any 1-form.
What do these properties mean geometrically? It turns out that the exterior derivative can be interpreted as measuring the boundary of the 1-form's geometrical structure. A gradient 1-form consists of contours, and contours of a smooth function have no boundary: they always form closed curves. Hence d(df)=0 is consistent with this interpretation. Conversely, if we have lines or planes that start and finish, their boundaries can define a 2-form's structures.
To give an example, consider the 1-form in two dimensions, x dy. Geometrically, dy consists of a stack of infinite horizontal lines, with no endpoints, but x dy vanishes on the y-axis, and the stack of horizontal lines becomes denser and denser as x increases. (Give or take a sign, which we haven't been too careful about tracking in our pictures, the same thing happens as x decreases.) So the whole plane is peppered uniformly with the endpoints of the new lines that are needed. These endpoints are really the same kind of structure as a 2-form, which peppers the plane with quadrilateral cells with no free dimensions: the cells are effectively 0-dimensional objects, as they can be shrunk to infinitesimal size.
And if we compute the exterior derivative, it agrees with this picture:
d(x dy) = dx ^ dy
which is just the superimposition of the coordinate 1-form dx and the coordinate 1-form dy, i.e. a uniform mesh of quadrilaterals covering the plane.
And if we contemplate exactly the same example in three dimensions, all the objects involved just get stretched out along the z-axis. The 1-form x dy is a stack of planes, and the boundaries of those planes are lines which match up with the "quadrilateral tubes" of dx^dy in three dimensions.
By induction, we can extend the exterior derivative to p-forms. If a is a q-form and b is an r-form:
d(da) = 0 d(a ^ b) = da ^ b + (-1)^q a ^db
Again, this can be interpreted geometrically in terms of boundaries.
------------------------------------------------------------ OK ... now what is the Hodge *, that converts p-forms into (d-p)-forms? I'll just sketch this. A metric on the space lets you define a d-form called the volume form, which, geometrically, is a division of the space into hypercuboids that, if counted over any region, give you the volume of that region as defined by the metric. For example, for R^3 with the ordinary Euclidean metric, dx^dy^dz is the volume form.
The Hodge dual of any p-form b, written as *b, is a (d-p) form that complements b, in the sense that b ^ *b is a multiple of the volume form. For example, in R^3:
*dx = dy ^ dz, so dx ^ *dx = dx ^ dy ^ dz
In other words, the Hodge dual of a p-form involves (putting it crudely) "the other dimensions" of the space, so that when you wedge something with its dual, all the dimensions get covered by the resulting d-form.
In 3d Euclidean space, if you use the metric to interconvert 1-forms and vectors, and the Hodge * to interconvert 1-forms and 2-forms, lots of 3d vector algebra and calculus can be re-expressed in terms of wedge products and exterior derivatives. For example, if you convert two vectors v and w to forms f_v and f_w, then convert the 1-form *(f_v ^ f_w) back to a vector, you get the cross product v X w. If you compute the 0-form or number *(f_u ^ f_v ^ f_w) for the forms corresponding to three vectors u, v, w, it will be the scalar triple product (u X v).w.
On the 3d vector calculus side, the vector correspnding to df, where f is a scalar function, is just grad f, i.e.
df = (@f/@x) dx + (@f/@y) dy + (@f/@z) dz
which converts to the grad f vector:
(@f/@x) @x + (@f/@y) @y + (@f/@z) @z
If you convert a 3D vector field v to a 1-form f_v, then take the exterior derivative d(f_v), convert that 2-form to a 1-form with the Hodge dual and convert back to a vector ... you get the curl of the vector field v.
And if you convert a 3D vector field v to a 1-form f_v, convert that to a 2-form with the Hodge dual, take the exterior derivative, then convert that to a scalar with the Hodge dual, that scalar will be div v, the divergence of the vector field. --------------------------------------------------------------
>Normally a derivative reduces the number > of dimensions but here we increase them (or decrease in some sense a > negative dimension). Well, boundaries of sets have one less dimension than the sets themselves, and forms of increasing degree involve geometrical objects with fewer "free dimensions", so I guess this will all make sense to you.
> >When you talk about studying 4-vectors in (3+1)D, I think what you're > >after is a good book on special relativity that uses the natural [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > That is *precisely* what I mean. > And to handle EM in the same way. Good luck. If you can, try to get to a good university library or a good technical bookshop and flick through a few of the possibilities. "Gravitation" by Misner, Thorne & Wheeler goes way beyond your (current) needs, but the sheer bounteousness of it might turn out to be worth the cost. In spite of being a GR textbook, it includes quite a bit of SR and EM, and a few nice pictures of various p-form structures. Taylor & Wheeler is also sure to be helpful.
Greg Egan - 19 Oct 2004 09:29 GMT In article <DhcfgARUR2bBFwkA@farmeroz.port995.com>, Oz <oz@farmeroz.port995.com> wrote:
> Greg Egan <gregegan@netspace.zebra.net.au> writes [snip]
> >But the ability (and sometimes the necessity) to convert between 1-forms > >and vector fields is a fact of life in physics, so instead of lamenting > >it, you should try to understand it more deeply. > > I'm not really lamenting it, rather to attempt to do without the > conversion until it absolutely required. Well, that's a good attitude. Understanding clearly when you can get by without doing this is very useful.
> Alternatively, since any space > must have a metric (even if unknown), put it in explicitly at least for > long enough for it to sink in. It's easy to define mathematical spaces which simply don't have a metric, and some of those spaces can be useful as abstract spaces in physics. But sure, if you're talking about ordinary spacetime in GR, of course there always really is a metric. Anyway, we're agreed that it's instructive sometimes not to use the metric, even where there is one.
> >(b) If you *do* have a metric, then you *can* convert 1-forms into vector > >fields and vice versa. > > Here I wish to be cautious. Can we do this whatever the dimensionality? > I got the impression that even dimensions produce something slightly > different. Wrong impression. 1-forms consist of stacks of hyperplanes (i.e. objects of dimension d-1 in d-dimensional space), and if you have a metric you can always find a vector field orthogonal to those hyperplanes and whose magnitude is related to the spacing of the hyperplanes. I gave you the mathematical details, and you quoted them back to me:
> >One way to do this is to think of a metric g as something that gives you > >a number when you feed it two vectors: the "dot product" of the two [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > >the rate at which the vector w takes you across the surfaces of the > >1-form f (e.g. how fast a velocity takes you across pressure isobars). It should be clear that this works in any dimension: the vector field corresponding to the form f is the vector field v that satisfies <f,w>=g(v,w) for any other vector field w. At any point, the vector will be orthogonal to any vector that's tangent to the hypersurfaces of the 1-form.
> Ok thats the grad bit? That's in my distant past. It would be really > helpful if you could illustrate it by physical example. Then I can > generally see it easily. If I take a static 3D electric field about a > charge I get spherical shells, take the gradient along some path and I > get the electric force vector (roughly). Now I want to extend that to > (3+1)D. In the language of forms, the 3D electrostatics of a point charge goes like this:
(a) There is a potential, a scalar function (aka 0-form), U=q/r
(b) The gradient of the potential is dU = -q/r^2 dr, which, viewed geometrically, consists of the spherical shells that are the contours of the function U. (The coordinate 1-form dr consists of evenly spaced spherical shells, whereas -q/r^2 dr has ever more widely spaced shells as r increases, and the contours of q/r become further and further apart.)
(c) The electric field E is the vector field corresponding to -dU = q/r^2 dr. What is that vector field? Just (q/r^2) @_r, where @_r is the r-coordinate vector field that points away from the charge. (Note that for some metrics, and even some other coordinates in flat-space polar coordinates, the conversion from 1-form to vector field isn't quite that simple, but we'll cross that bridge when we come to it.)
So E = (q/r^2) @_r is the electric field, and the force on a test charge q_2 is given by E q_2.
OK, that's a description of the solution for a point charge, but we haven't mentioned the equation it's solving. In vector notation, the electrostatic equations are:
div E = rho, where rho is the charge density curl E = 0
where E is a vector field.
If instead of being a vector field, though, suppose we think of E as being the 1-form corresponding to that vector field. Then these equations become:
*d*E = rho dE = 0
where * is the Hodge dual.
We've already mentioned that for a point charge, the 1-form version of E = q/r^2 dr. *E will be a 2-form, which can be thought of geometrically as a mesh of two intersecting sets of surfaces orthogonal to the spherical shells of E. In terms of coordinate forms, *E will be a multiple of d{theta} ^ d{phi}, the two coordinate 1-forms for the other two polar coordinates besides r.
The mesh of *E defines quadrilateral tubes that radiate out from the point charge. Now, d*E is a 3-form, the "boundary" of *E. In our geometrical picture, d*E is a little cuboidal box around every endpoint of the quadrilateral tubes of *E. So for the point charge solution, d*E will be zero everywhere but on the point charge. And *d*E will be a 0-form, a scalar function on space, equal to the charge density, rho. (That this is a delta function for a point particle is something I have no wish to delve into at all.)
The second equation is simpler. It just says that the gaps between the surfaces of the 1-form E (spherical shells, for a point charge) have no boundary. The fact that E=-dU actually guarantees this, because ddU is necessarily zero: taking the exterior derivative twice always gives zero.
Maxwell's equations in 3+1 spacetime are almost exactly the same as these, except they apply to a 2-form on spacetime, which is usually called F:
*d*F = J dF = 0
where J is a 1-form on spacetime which describes the movement and density of charge.
I won't go into all the details of this; you really, really need to find a book for this stuff. I'm just going to give a quick sketch of how the electrostatic picture extends into 3+1 dimensions.
Basically, the point charge extends into a world line in spacetime. The quadrilateral flux tubes poking out from the charge in 3d extend into planes that terminate on the world line; these are the planes that lie between the mesh of *F, which being a 2-form in 4 dimensions has two free dimensions, and two "walled" ones defined by the mesh.
If you cut out one spatial dimension and visualise this in three dimensions (two of space, one of time) the world line of the charge is surrounded by planar radial "fins" rather than radial tubes as the gaps between the mesh of the 2-form *F. To be a little bit more mathematical, *F will be a multiple of d{theta} ^ d{phi}. Planes with fixed values of theta and phi, and (r,t) taking on all possible values, will radiate out from the world line, in place of the radial tubes that are the gaps within the mesh of *E in the 3d version. That the density and location of the boundaries of these planes lie on the worldlines of point charges -- or appear within the world tube of blobs of charge, if you want to smear away those embarrassing delta functions -- is basically what *d*F = J is saying.
The 2-form F itself will be a multiple of dr ^ dt. The hypersurfaces of dr are three-dimensional, of course, but if you slice through spacetime and look at just one moment of time, you get spherical shells again. The hypersurfaces of dt fill all the spatial dimensions (i.e. all dimensions orthogonal to the charge's world line).
In a picture where we look at 2 spatial dimensions plus time, we get the dt hypersurfaces sliced down to horizontal planes, and the dr hypersurfaces sliced down to concentric cylinders around the world line.
The 2-dimensional gaps between the mesh, though, are just the same kind of spherical shells as in the 3d case, only here we need the spatial hypersurfaces of dt to "wall them in" in the time dimension and make them 2-dimensional. And dF=0 just means, as in the 3d case, that these gaps have no boundaries: they form closed spheres.
> ================== > [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > non-differential stuff FIRST, so one has a decent *basic elementary* > grounding in the techniques. If you mean special, rather than general, relativity, it's clearer to say that than "Newtonian". "Newtonian" suggests pre-relativistic mechanics, and while that can be described in 3+1 dimensions, I don't think that's what you want.
> Whenever I try and do this here, all the respondents vanish into the > ether.... > > Below is my attempt at the sort of thing I am after.... > It will doubtless show up many confusions. Well, you really ought to go and find a suitable textbook at this point (your whole aim with starting this thread, I know, so I hope you'll follow through on it).
> If I take some mass at rest at the origin in some frame F then I guess > it should be expressed as: [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > Hmm. This isn't a position, but an expression of momentum. > Take away the m and it becomes a velocity. I'm so used to using units where c=1 that I take no responsibility for checking the correctness of any factors of c that you use. I also don't know why you insist on the added labour of writing the components of column vectors this way. m (c,0,0,0)^T says the same thing with less effort.
Nit-picking out of the way ... a body's 4-velocity is just the vector defined by taking derivatives with respect to that object's proper time (the time that elapses for a clock carried along the body's world line). If that world line is the t axis in an orthogonal coordinate system (t,x,y,z) in flat spacetime, then proper time tau will coincide with t, and the coordinates of the 4-velocity will be (d/d{tau})(t,x,y,z)=(1,0,0,0).
The 4-momentum, by definition, is just the rest mass times the 4-velocity, so it will have coordinates (m,0,0,0).
> I have been told that I can switch frames, effectively imparting a > velocity, by multiplying by the lorentz transform. I find this quite [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > temporal units the same, and I haven't. So that's the justification for > gods units then. c now set firmly to one for this reason.... Firstly, you're writing matrix multiplication in a non-standard way. Put the column vector being multiplied to the right of the matrix, or nobody else will know what you're talking about.
Secondly, the Lorentz transformation matrix between the frames you specified is:
[ w -vw 0 0] [-vw w 0 0] [ 0 0 1 0] [ 0 0 0 1]
You missed out some terms, and you had the wrong sign for the velocity, at least if I understood you correctly and you want to transform from the old frame's coordinates to those of a new one whose origin is moving along the x-axis at a velocity of v. Those 1's are necessary to keep the y and z coordinates unchanged (rather than zeroed), and the w you missed on the diagonal is necessary for the whole thing to approach an identity matrix as v approaches zero.
In units where c !=1 the v's become (v/c), but please, please just give up on the c's. If you want to rotate the time axis towards a spatial axis, first convert them into the same units, or everything becomes needlessly tedious.
The result is:
[ w -vw 0 0] [1] [ w] [-vw w 0 0] [0] [-vw] [ 0 0 1 0] [0] = [ 0 ] [ 0 0 0 1] [0] [ 0 ]
Note that -w^2 + (-vw)^2 = (w^2)(v^2-1) = -1 by the definition of gamma(v)=w. The Lorentzian metric always gives a squared length of minus 1 for a 4-velocity.
I haven't read through your example of a collision carefully, but the general idea that (a) 4-momentum is conserved, and (b) that it's a pain trying to solve the resulting non-linear equations, is sound. Other people might have useful comments to add on this. As, of course, will any good SR textbook ...
Greg Egan - 21 Oct 2004 08:47 GMT In article <vDT0Y$EzihdBFwD9@farmeroz.port995.com>, Oz <oz@farmeroz.port995.com> wrote:
> Greg Egan <gregegan@netspace.zebra.net.au> writes [snip]
> >Also, you can think of a 1-form f as something that > >> >(at a given point in space) gives you a number when you feed it a vector,
> >> >w: this number is usually written <f,w>, > > Oh dear, you are using a ket-like nomenclature. > Am I to read <f,w> as F_nW^n? Usually this is true, but it's not the definition of <,>, so a little care is need here. (Unsure why you changed to upper case, but I'll take that as a typo.)
Vector and 1-form coordinates on their own are always a bit dangerous, because the reality is that they're totally meaningless numbers unless they're tied to a particular *basis*. A vector is not an n-tuple of numbers, (w^1, ..., w^n), it is the sum w^i e_i, where e_i are basis vectors.
Now, iff the f_i and w^i are coordinates that refer to "dual bases" for the vectors and 1-forms is it safe to say <f,w> = f_i w^i. What are dual basis? If {e_i} is the basis for the vector space, and {e^i} is the basis for the 1-forms, then these two bases are "dual" to each other if:
<e^i, e_j> = delta^i_j
An example of dual bases is given by the coordinate vector fields @_i and the coordinate 1-forms dx^i that I defined in an earlier post. There, you have:
<dx^i, @_j> by definition equals dx^i/dx^j = delta^i_j
Anyway, the *reason* that if you are using dual bases you get the f_i w^i formula is:
<f, w> = <f_i e^i, w^j e_j> = f_i w^j <e^i, e_j> = f_i w^j delta^i_j = f_i w^i
If the bases aren't dual, you can't expect that formula to work. Coordinate bases are automatically dual.
> >and it is found by computing > >> >the rate at which the vector w takes you across the surfaces of the > >> >1-form f (e.g. how fast a velocity takes you across pressure isobars). > > Ok. Are we effectively into differential forms here? I don't understand your question. The only forms I've been talking about all along are also known as differential forms. So there's no boundary where we're sometimes talking about differential forms and sometimes not.
> >It should be clear that this works in any dimension: the vector field > >corresponding to the form f is the vector field v that satisfies [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > A vector field is V^n, so (I'll bet you normally have the indices the > other way about) F_n W^n = g_mn V^n W^m ? No, we agree on the superscript/subscript conventions, and your formula here is correct (with the caveat about dual bases). In fact, we can go one step further and say:
The coordinates of the 1-form f that corresponds to the vector field v are, if we're working with dual bases, f_n = g_{mn} v^m. This is known as "lowering an index" on v to produce f. Conversely, we can use the inverse metric g^{mn} to raise an index, and convert a 1-form to a vector field.
> >At any point, the vector will > >be orthogonal to any vector that's tangent to the hypersurfaces of the [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > this tangent plane in higher dimensions. If you say this is so that's > fine, but I remember discussions here where this was discussed. Please don't take my word for anything, think about it. The hypersurfaces of a 1-form have *exactly* one less dimension than the whole space. Suppose the dimension of the space is d. Then the hypersurfaces are (d-1)-dimensional, and the tangent hyperplane to any point on the hypersurface will be spanned by (d-1) orthogonal vectors. The greatest number of vectors in a basis of d-dimensional space is, obviously, d, so once you pick even one vector orthogonal to all the (d-1) vectors spanning the hyperplane, you have a complete orthogonal basis for the whole space, so there's no room left for any ambiguity except for a scalar multiple.
> >In the language of forms, the 3D electrostatics of a point charge goes > >like this: > > > >(a) There is a potential, a scalar function (aka 0-form), U=q/r > > So how would you write that in matrix 3+1D form? A scalar is a scalar. You just write it as a variable, or algebraic expression, with no enclosing symbols.
> Comments: > U is a scalar. dr is a 1-form. Shouldn't that make U a 1-form? I take it "U is a 1-form?" is a typo for "dU is a 1-form?" If so, then yes, dU is a 1-form: a scalar multiplied by the 1-form dr
> I take it dr expresses an even spatial distribution of planes. > If we had a (very) massive charge, would dr reflect that although up > until now we haven't used a metric? If you mean space is distorted by the mass, what that means for dr all depends on how r is defined. We have been talking about standard polar coordinates in flat space, but if you change that assumption, it's up to you to specify a new coordinate system for the new physical situation, and the relationship between metric-defined distances and the coordinate r need not be the same as in flat-space polar coordinates.
Also, I've been glossing over a small complication: because the picture we have of a 1-form involves finite spacing between the planes, and because the reality involves *infinitesimal* spacing, we always have to be sure to imagine the planes spaced so closely that neither the 1-form's value, nor the geometry of space (if there's a metric) are changing much over the stack of planes we're focusing on. Real purists would say that these planes *really* belong in a separate vector space associated with each point in the manifold: they are actually planes in the tangent space. But in a small enough region, assuming everything varies smoothly, we can get away with thinking of the stacks of planes forming nice patterns in real space.
> >If instead of being a vector field, though, suppose we think of E as > >being the 1-form corresponding to that vector field. Then these [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > Ok, hang ye on a mo. > For a point charge you showed dU = q/r^2 and implied it was a 1-form. I said dU = -q/r^2 dr, and of course that makes it a 1-form.
> I forget how the hodge works, but its relatively complex. > I imagine *d is the sort of thing that gives me nightmares. > Do we need to use either? Yes we do.
I don't have the patience to give you a precise definition of the Hodge * in all generality, but I gave you most of it in an earlier post, which you promised to save and consult but now seem to be ignoring. Instead of saying "I forget", why don't you re-read that post?
> Let me see what you are saying, you have E as a 1-form E_n: > > d^nE^m = rho^mn > d_mE_n =0 > > Is that right? Sorry, this is gibberish. "d" is an operator that takes a p-form and gives you a (p+1)-form, it is not a vector or 1-form, or any other object with coordinates. And rho, the charge density, is a scalar, so it has no coordinates.
> I'm now somewhat confused by the hodge. Its obviously doing something > different to g, but related. Is it almost a differential form of g? > I'm also somewhat unclear about "d". This can be read as either a > differentiation or an integration. Indeed it would not be unexpected to > find, say, d^n as being integration and d_n as differentiation. This is all random gibberish. Please re-read the post where I sketched definitions of these things, or better yet, drop the crap about there being no suitable textbooks. I managed to figure out all this stuff from reading "Gravitation" by Misner, Thorne and Wheeler, and "Gauge Fields, Knots & Gravity" by Baez and Munian. Other people have posted other suggestions.
> Hang on here though. We should be able to write down a matrix for E in > the 3D static situation as above. We should then be able to simply > extend this to 3+1D because the time-dependent slots are zero. Then we > should simply need to lorentz transform it and hey-presto the general > 3+1D representation. Its then obvious that J is simply a moving bunch of > rho (as it should be). The idea that the full spacetime version is really implicit in simple Gaussian electrostatics, plus Lorentz invariance, is spot on, but your suggestions about the detailed coordinate mechanics of this are wrong.
You really should read the first few chapters of "Gauge Fields, Knots & Gravity", which is all about converting the old-style Maxwell's equations to the language of forms.
> Yes. Now I'm getting dimensionally confused. > dr is one-dimensional, surfaces of constant r are (4-1)=3 dimensional? dr is a 1-form, and hence in 4-dimensional space involves (4-1)=3-dimensional surfaces of constant r. Don't say "dr is one-dimensional", say "dr has degree 1", or "dr is a 1-form".
> >Well, you really ought to go and find a suitable textbook at this point > >(your whole aim with starting this thread, I know, so I hope you'll > >follow through on it). > > If I can find one. I have my doubts. Try harder. Everything I'm telling you came out of textbooks.
> >Other > >people might have useful comments to add on this. As, of course, will [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > elementary or so high power that these basic things are not covered in a > simple way. Have you looked at "Spacetime Physics" by Taylor and Wheeler?
Malcolm - 27 Oct 2004 16:55 GMT > Please do not be shocked. > [quoted text clipped - 31 lines] > > Does such a book exist? Feynman's lectures on physics vol. 1 chapters 15/17 contain a basic discussion of 4-vectors.
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