Dimensionful fundamental constants debate: Moffat & Davies vs.
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robert bristow-johnson - 28 Dec 2004 19:54 GMT i realize that physical reality is not governed by majority rule within a small group of human beings on an "insignificant planet [orbiting] a humdrum star lost in a galaxy tucked away in some forgotten corner of a universe" but i was wondering what a "straw poll" here might look like.
who's correct: John Moffat in hep-th/0208109 or Michael Duff in hep-th/0208093
i am having trouble getting the exact arXiv links to post here but Duff is saying that any conceivable variation of dimensionful universal "constants" "are merely human constructs whose number and values differ from one choice of units to the next and which have no intrinsic physical significance" and Moffat says he's all wrong about that.
who's right (in your judgement)? Duff or Moffat?
 Signature r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com
"Imagination is more important than knowledge."
ebunn@lfa221051.richmond.edu - 06 Jan 2005 22:12 GMT >i realize that physical reality is not governed by majority rule within a >small group of human beings on an "insignificant planet [orbiting] a humdrum [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > >i am having trouble getting the exact arXiv links to post here http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0208109 http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0208093
>but Duff is >saying that any conceivable variation of dimensionful universal "constants" >"are merely human constructs whose number and values differ from one choice >of units to the next and which have no intrinsic physical significance" and >Moffat says he's all wrong about that. I find it a bit hard to pin down exactly what Moffat is saying, but he's saying what I think he is, then he's wrong. Anyway, rather than trying to read minds, I'll just state specifically what I think is true.
Consider two theories that are the same except for the values of various constants. If all of the dimensionless constants are the same, then the two theories are equivalent (cannot be distinguished by any experiment), even if the two theories have different values of dimensionful constants.
I think that this statement is (a) true, and (b) what people generally mean when they say that only variations in dimensionless constants can be measured. If Moffat is disagreeing with this statement, then I think he's wrong.
I'll give some examples, in case things aren't clear.
Imagine a universe consisting of only electrons, positrons, and photons interacting via quantum electrodynamics (no gravity, strong, or weak force). In such a universe, the only dimensionless constant is the fine-structure constant
alpha = e^2 / (hbar c).
There's no way to distinguish in this universe between a 5% decrease in the value of e (holding hbar and c fixed) and a 10% increase in the value of c (holding e and hbar fixed), because both of these alter the fine-structure constant in the same way.
In our actual universe, there are particles other than electrons, positrons, and photons, and interactions other than QED. That means that it may be possible to distinguish between a 5% drop in e and a 10% rise in c. Whether it's possible or not depends on what's being held fixed as you change these constants.
To keep things relatively simple, let's imagine a universe only slightly more complicated than the one above. Suppose there are still only electrons, positrons, and photons, but now they interact via both QED and gravity. In such a theory, the dimensionful constants we can imagine varying include e, c, hbar, m_e (electron mass), G (gravitation constant).
There are only two independent dimensionless constants we can make out of these:
e^2 / hbar c = fine-structure constant m_e / (hbar c/G)^(1/2) = ratio of electron mass to Planck mass.
Here's the question: in this theory, can you distinguish between a 5% decrease in e and a 10% increase in c? If we hold m_e and G fixed, then the answer is yes, because the second dimensionless constant will change. On the other hand, if we instead allow G and/or m_e to vary along with c, and we do it in such a way that the ratio of masses remains constant, then there's no experimental way to distinguish between a varying-e universe and a varying-c universe.
This may seem like sophistry. After all, surely it's obvious that when we talk about varying c, we're not talking about varying G at the same time, right? Wrong. We can imagine varying c while holding G and hbar fixed, or we can imagine varying hbar while holding the Planck mass and hbar fixed. Which one seems more "natural" to us depends on whether we regard G or the Planck mass as more fundamental. But that's an artifact of how we were taught physics, not a property of the universe.
Moffat lists a bunch of examples in his paper of situations in which changes in dimensionful constants can be measured. In every case, if you think carefully about what's being held constant, I think you'll find that some dimensionless constant is varying.
Some papers in the field, especially theory papers regarding the interpretation of recent observations that suggest variations in the fine-structure constant, are a bit confusing on this point. They talk about whether the observations are better fit by models in which c varies or models in which hbar varies, for instance. They don't always say explicitly which other constants (e.g., G or Planck mass?) are being fixed when c and hbar are varied.
I talked to Joao Magueijo, one of the leaders in this field, about this issue once, and, if I understood him correctly, he agreed with the "conventional wisdom" as I've tried to describe it above. When he and others distinguish between varying-c theories and varying-hbar theories, those theories involve fixing other dimensionful constants in a certain way, so that there are dimensionless constants that differ between the two cases.
-Ted
 Signature [E-mail me at name@domain.edu, as opposed to name@machine.domain.edu.]
whopkins@csd.uwm.edu - 08 Jan 2005 22:02 GMT ebunn@lfa221051.richmond.edu wrote:
> I think that this statement is (a) true, and (b) what people > generally mean when they say that only variations in > dimensionless constants can be measured. If Moffat is > disagreeing with this statement, then I > think he's wrong. I raised the issue and dealt with the topic extensively here over the past 5 years. The papers sound like echoes of the comments I made (and probably, in fact, came from them, postdating the articles posted here), but apparently, still not getting as far as I did.
It's true that all you have access to are dimensionless values. So transformations in dimensionful values (coupled with transformations in the actual physical quantities, like lengths) of the kind that preserve everything that's dimensionless are physically irrelevant.
However, there is one place where the rubber hits the ground. Calculus is not invariant under this transformation. In general, if T is a time unit for which (T/second) is not constant, then d(t/second)*second vs. d(t/T)*T are different.
So, what it comes down to is this: if you accept the invisibility and irrelevance of transformations that preserve dimensionless values, then the derivative operator ceases to be meaningful!
Then, either the underlying continuum used to model physical events has to be foregone in place of something discrete, or the derivatives have to be unit-gauged.
In either case, if you're using derivatives to model events (either as an approximation to the underlying discrete reality or a direct representation of it), then there is implicit a natural "horizontal" direction in the unit-gauge space.
However -- the ultimate conclusions raised in my dealings with the topics -- the gauging need not be trivializable! That means, then, that NO system of units may exist which provides the correct "horizontal" direction for the derivatives. For instance, you may have one system of equations that work naturally with one set of units (meter, second, kilogram) and another system of equations that work naturally with another set of units (L, T, M) for which L/meter, T/second, M/kilogram are not all constant. Differentiation is equivalent under transformation only between equivalent sets of units (i.e. sets whose ratios are all non-zero constants). A case of this is where one system may be naturally formulated in terms of the units (e,h,m_e), another in terms of (c,h,G), but where the ratio e/(hc) need not be a constant!
Under such circumstances, you are forced to accept the relativity of scaling, to reject universally equating of one set of constants to 1, and to admit an extra gauge structure for dimensional scale invariance.
Jesse Mazer - 09 Jan 2005 13:47 GMT >i realize that physical reality is not governed by majority rule within a >small group of human beings on an "insignificant planet [orbiting] a humdrum [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > Perhaps it's just a semantic disagreement. Wouldn't Moffat agree that if you simultaneously changed several dimensionful constants in such a way that *none* of the dimensionless constants were affected, there would be no new physically measurable effects? If so, then the claim "c increased by a factor of 4" could be seen as just a kind of shorthand for a statement like "all dimensionless constants which have a factor of c^1/2 in them increased by a factor of 2, all dimensionless constants which have a factor of c^-1 in them decreased by a factor of 4, all dimensionless constants which have a factor of c^-5 in them decreased by a factor of 1024, etc."Then the disagreement between Moffat and Duff would just be about whether it is acceptable to use "c increased by a factor of 4" as a shorthand for this detailed description of a change in various dimensionless constants or not (an argument against this shorthand would be if it were possible to reproduce the same changes in dimensionless constants by varying one or more other dimensionful constants besides c).
I'm curious though, is there any basic principle that you can appeal to that would prove that changing various dimensionful constants in a way that leaves all the dimensionless constants unaltered could not possibly have any measurable physical effects? I ask because I know of a popular creationist theory which tries to explain how we see light from distant galaxies by postulating that the speed of light was much higher in the past, and in order to avoid this leading to certain death for Adam & Eve (say, because the energy released by nuclear reactions in the sun would be much larger according to E=mc^2) he has to vary a bunch of other dimensionful constants as well, and I suspect that the net result is that all of the dimensionless constants are unchanged...if there was some simple proof that this could have no measurable effects, it would be useful in debunking this theory. The page at http://www.phys.unsw.edu.au/~dzuba/varyc.html gives some physical arguments as to why specific methods of trying to measure a change in c wouldn't work, but I'm wondering if there's a more general and rigorous argument.
Jesse
robert bristow-johnson - 27 Jan 2005 15:45 GMT > I'm curious though, is there any basic principle that you can appeal to > that would prove that changing various dimensionful constants in a way > that leaves all the dimensionless constants unaltered could not possibly > have any measurable physical effects? ..
> The page at http://www.phys.unsw.edu.au/~dzuba/varyc.html gives some > physical arguments as to why specific methods of trying to measure a > change in c wouldn't work, but I'm wondering if there's a more general > and rigorous argument. If all dimensionless quantities remain constant, that would include the dimensionless ratios of your standard of length to the Planck length and of your standard of time to the Planck time. since the speed of light is always 1 Planck length per Planck time, then if all dimensionless values are unchanged, the speed of light in whatever units you choose (as long as those units remain a constant multiple of the corresponding Planck units), the speed of light remains unchanged.
it works for me. perhaps it ain't rigorous enough for someone else.
 Signature r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com
"Imagination is more important than knowledge."
Rob Woodside - 18 Jan 2005 19:20 GMT robert bristow-johnson Wrote:
> who's correct: John Moffat in > http://www.arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0208109 > or Michael Duff in http://www.arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0208093 I thought I new about such trivial things as units, but Duff educated me!!! Duff is quite right. Duff's mistake is to publicly attack the folklore around "variable constants". It has been a small industry to publish on "variable constants" and Duff shows that much of it is nonsense. Duff demonstrates different sets of units, showing that a change in the fine structure constant would be blamed on the speed of light in one set of units and on Planck's constant in another, etc. He references some critics, but their argument is essentially: "We know the folklore and Duff is wrong" Burning him at the stake makes about as much sense.
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Hans de Vries - 18 Jan 2005 19:20 GMT robert bristow-johnson Wrote:
> > who's right (in your judgement)? Duff or Moffat? > Duff mixes up a few things and therefor weakens his argument:
1) A variation of a constant (in %) is always dimensionless. It does in no way dependent on how we choose our unit of measurement. An N% change in liters would be the same N% change in gallons Duff should leave such arguments outside the discussion.
The real problem is that we may not have our previous reference measurement stick anymore when it has changed. So the problem becomes how to determine the % change when we can not directly compare the "before" and the "after" values.
It is this problem that occurs only in dimensional but not in dimension- less constants. Dimensionless constant are always ratio's of values with the same dimension. The "after" ratio can always be determined without a need for a "before" measurement stick.
2) It's simply not true that we can not distinguish if a varying alpha
comes from a change in c or e, even though the consequences of any of the two changing can be quite complex.
In general: If this kind of impossibility of distinction was true in any case of two or more constants then it would only mean that we can describe nature with less constants than we do.
Regards, Hans
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robert bristow-johnson - 25 Jan 2005 16:34 GMT > 2) It's simply not true that we can not distinguish if a varying alpha > comes from a change in c or e, even though the consequences of any > of the two changing can be quite complex. unless there are a variety of *independent* dimensionless quantities (those are what we directly measure in a physical experiment) that all change in a way that is consistent with an equal change of c but are not consistent with an equal change of any other physical parameter, then i cannot see how we can know.
> In general: If this kind of impossibility of distinction was true in > any case of two or more constants then it would only mean that we can > describe nature with less constants than we do. if fact, the physicists tell me that the Standard Model does not have any of these dimensionful constants in it. even if you toss in gravitation (that would just define mass ratios of particles to the Planck mass) and the cosmological constant. if i understand them right, we actually *can* describe nature without c or h_bar or G or epsilon_0 (i presume we do it in Planck units and "e" becomes the sqrt of alpha).
it changes some of the questions we ask. instead of asking why gravity is so weak (because, in Planck units, G is just 1), we ask instead why the mass of particles like the electron and proton are so small. instead of asking why is the speed of light so fast, we ask why are we (and our meter sticks) so big and why do our clocks tick even more so slow.
that's my spin on it.
 Signature r b-j rbj@audioimagination.com
"Imagination is more important than knowledge."
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