I've just been starting to study Peskin and Schroeder seriously, and
I'm wondering: do we only need renormalization if we use perturbation
methods, or do we have to renormalize in nonperturbative QFT as well?
I've looked around for a while and couldn't find a clear answer on this.
meyr2@web.de - 20 Feb 2005 23:03 GMT
Renormalization is a phenomenon of perturbative methods. Its already
present in perturbation theory in normal quantum theory, because the
calculated perturbed wave-function doesn't automatically have norm 1.
René.
Eugene Stefanovich - 23 Feb 2005 09:56 GMT
> Renormalization is a phenomenon of perturbative methods. Its already
> present in perturbation theory in normal quantum theory, because the
> calculated perturbed wave-function doesn't automatically have norm 1.
>
> René.
I disagree. Renormalization is needed whether you use perturbative
methods or not. The need for renormalization follows from the
structure of interaction between particles. E.g., in QED the
trilinear electron-photon interactions lead to the
self-interaction of electrons which makes an infinite contribution to
their mass and requires introduction of infinite counterterms in
the Hamiltonian.
Eugene Stefanovich.
mikem@despammed.com - 20 Feb 2005 23:05 GMT
> I've just been starting to study Peskin and Schroeder
> seriously, and I'm wondering: do we only need
> renormalization if we use perturbation methods,
> or do we have to renormalize in nonperturbative
> QFT as well? [...]
I'm not sure how far you are in P&S, but in
ch7 there's a section called "Field Strength
Renormalization" that derives some properties
of 2-point functions using non-perturbative
methods. One thing they show is how a single
particle state can evolve through an infinity
of multiparticle intermediate states, leading
to infinite "Z" terms corresponding to the
usual ones that arise in 1-loop QED. That
might partially answer your question.
Arnold Neumaier - 20 Feb 2005 23:06 GMT
> I've just been starting to study Peskin and Schroeder seriously, and
> I'm wondering: do we only need renormalization if we use perturbation
> methods, or do we have to renormalize in nonperturbative QFT as well?
Yes. Renormalization is needed since the continuum limit of a QFT is
well-defined only if the coupling constants are taken to be a suitable
function of the cutoff.
See my theoretical physics FAQ at
http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txt
Perturbation methods are used only because no one knows how to do
4D QFT without it. But in 2D and 3D one knowns how to do QFT
nonperturbatively, and there one can see that renormalization
is independent of perturbation theory.
Arnold Neumaier