Hello,
Is it correct to state that a mass in uniform circular motion has a constant
DeBroglie wavelength because its angular momentum is constant? It seems to me
that otherwise lambda would eventually vanish to zero? On the other hand, how
could the change in the linear momentum of such a particle be related to lambda
and/or k directly? Still, if the statement above is not correct, what is the
correct one?
Thanks,
Armin
Igor Khavkine - 31 Jul 2005 20:50 GMT
> Hello,
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> momentum of such a particle be related to lambda and/or k directly?
> Still, if the statement above is not correct, what is the correct one?
The formula used for the de Broglie wave length is
1/lambda = p/h = k,
where only the magnitude of the momentum p or wavenumber k are used. For
circular motion, the magnitude of p remains constant, while its
direction changes. So, strictly speaking, lambda remains constant. The
wave number k is not constant, since it is directly proportional to the
nomentum vector.
Hope this helps.
Igor