EM field of photon
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ilper@abv.bg - 11 Dec 2007 02:57 GMT Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has an EM field.
How does it look like if one can measure it in space and time?
Uncle Al - 11 Dec 2007 21:39 GMT > Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > an EM field. > > How does it look like if one can measure it in space and > time? Two orthogonal in-phase sine waves (electric and magnetic fields) that in turn are orthogonal to the direction of propagation.
<http://www.photobiology.info/graphics/photochem03.gif> <http://www.profc.udec.cl/~gabriel/tutoriales/rsnote/cp1/1-2-1.gif> <http://www.profc.udec.cl/~gabriel/tutoriales/rsnote/cp1/1-2-2.gif>
Experiment: Excite an atom, let it decay. A photon is ejected, linear momentum is conserved. The recoil of the atom tells you where the photon went. Is the photon invisible from other directions?
 Signature Uncle Al http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals) http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2
ilper@abv.bg - 12 Dec 2007 14:40 GMT > il...@abv.bg wrote: > [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > Uncle Alhttp://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ > (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2 But this is just a classical picture. The photon is a truly quantum object received by quantization of that this field of alternating E and B. In fact I expected something in the spirit of QM. I'm not sure from what kind of wavefunction one should start from. I imagine one must start from the QED wavefunction [...> of the vector- potential A which is (?? and Zuber b.e.) integral from a classical A(x,t) (satisfieng Maxwell) time the creation operator a+ time vaccuum [0>. This states are build as so that they are eigenfunction of energy and number of photons. So I believe in the sense of QM one must apply the A operator to the QED wavefunction [...> to get the values of A (then using rot and div to obtain E and B). But as A~a+a(+) this is not an eigenfunction of A. So I expect to have a spectrum of values for A - A(i)each one emerging with a certain probability. As a mean value the classical EB field should emerge from this.
[ Mod. note: That's a pretty good answer to your own question, Ilian. -ik :-) ]
Ilian
Oh No - 14 Dec 2007 07:00 GMT Thus spake ilper@abv.bg
>> il...@abv.bg wrote: >> [quoted text clipped - 42 lines] > >Ilian Indeed it is. I have given a treatment of photons from this point of view, leading to Maxwell's equations as expectation values of the operator A, in gr-qc/0605127.
Regards
 Signature Charles Francis moderator sci.physics.foundations. charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and braces)
Arnold Neumaier - 14 Dec 2007 07:00 GMT ilper@abv.bg schrieb:
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > an EM field. > > How does it look like if one can measure it in space and > time? Have a look at the entry S4k. What is a photon? in the theoretical physics FAQ at http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txt where everything is esplained in detail.
Arnold Neumaier
p.kinsler@ic.ac.uk - 20 Dec 2007 22:45 GMT > Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > an EM field.
> How does it look like if one can measure it in space and > time? M. Hawton has published some intersting stuff, e.g.
http://arxiv.org/abs/0711.0112v1
.. earlier work by her along the same lines also exists.
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Arnold Neumaier - 22 Dec 2007 23:32 GMT p.kinsler@ic.ac.uk schrieb:
>> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has >> an EM field. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > http://arxiv.org/abs/0711.0112v1 But (as she says in the abstract), her position operator does not transform as a vector, hence everything, including the probability of observing a photon in some region of space, is orientation dependent. This makes her construction unphysical.
There is no way around the fact that a probability interpretation via a Schroedinger wave function in position space requires a position operator with the standard commutation relations with itself, with momentum, and with angular momentum.
But there is no such position vector for photons. This was stated without proof by Newton and Wigner in 1949, and proved by Wightman in 1962. (If someone knows of an earlier published proof, I'd be interested in a reference.)
A detailed discussion is given in the entry ''S2g. Particle positions and the position operator'' of my theoretical physics FAQ at http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txt
Arnold Neumaier
Timo A. Nieminen - 20 Dec 2007 22:45 GMT > Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > an EM field. > > How does it look like if one can measure it in space and > time? How does it look? To the best resolution of our measurements, point-like in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your detector, at a single instant of time.
Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a wavefunction for photons.
For a plane wave mode, you'll have E=0 and H=0 for a single photon, since there is no localisation at all - the photon can be anywhere and anywhen. For a wavepacket, non-zero fields (but beware of "confined", a Gaussian wavepacket extends to infinity in space and time).
 Signature Timo Nieminen - Home page: http://www.physics.uq.edu.au/people/nieminen/ E-prints: http://eprint.uq.edu.au/view/person/Nieminen,_Timo_A..html Shrine to Spirits: http://www.users.bigpond.com/timo_nieminen/spirits.html
Oz - 26 Dec 2007 16:00 GMT Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes
>> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has >> an EM field. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your >detector, at a single instant of time. No. This characteristic is that of the detector. The pixel is not a photon.
>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean >by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and >an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a >wavefunction for photons. An electromagnetic wave has an EM field, by definition. If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some element of EM field. Its most certainly true that a large number of photons making a beam has a measurable EM field. What is less clear is whether a static electric field (say) can be considered a photon, although its certainly true that any disturbance (in time) of such a field will produce EM waves. Of course this applies to two charged particles interacting providing they move (otherwise their combined field is static), so one immediately gets EM waves, and thus photons from interacting charged particles.
I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that would express forces even in the event of no movement. I imagine these would express some sort of self-cancelling standing wave that would precisely express the electric field.
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Oh No - 26 Dec 2007 19:41 GMT Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
>Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes >> [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] >No. This characteristic is that of the detector. The pixel is not a >photon. You ignore the fact that a locality condition is obeyed by the photon field operator, A(x), quite separately and independently of the locality condition for charged particles. In that sense, the photon has as much right to be considered a particle as an electron.
>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean >>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and >>an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a >>wavefunction for photons. > >An electromagnetic wave has an EM field, by definition. it *is* an em field, by definition.
>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense >alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] >field is static), so one immediately gets EM waves, and thus photons >from interacting charged particles. photons do not generate other photons, in the way that charged particles generate photons. For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an electromagnetic field.
>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that >would express forces even in the event of no movement. It does. That is qed.
> I imagine these >would express some sort of self-cancelling standing wave that would >precisely express the electric field. I find it better understood as a two way flow of photons.
Regards
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Oz - 02 Jan 2008 10:54 GMT Oh No <NotI@charlesfrancis.wanadoo.co.uk> writes
>Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com> >>Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >condition for charged particles. In that sense, the photon has as much >right to be considered a particle as an electron. In that formulation, of course. And it works well. However significantly abstruse mathematics that effectively turn a particle into a wave are required ti obtain the correct results.
>>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean >>>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > >it *is* an em field, by definition. For some definitions of "is".
>>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense >>alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] >photons do not generate other photons, in the way that charged particles >generate photons. Well, since I consider photons to be an artefact of the measuring device this is not relevant.
>For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has >an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an >electromagnetic field. An EM wave has an EM field...
>>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that >>would express forces even in the event of no movement. [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > >I find it better understood as a two way flow of photons. Which are basically unobserved and 'virtual', hmm....
 Signature Oz This post is worth absolutely nothing and is probably fallacious.
Oh No - 03 Jan 2008 18:09 GMT Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
>Oh No <NotI@charlesfrancis.wanadoo.co.uk> writes >>Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com> [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] >However significantly abstruse mathematics that effectively turn a >particle into a wave are required ti obtain the correct results. The maths is abstruse, and actually ill founded, whichever way it is approached. But at least I think can straighten out the particle approach, whereas I don't see any way to straighten out the field approach. Mostly it seems to be a matter of making things so abstruse that the wool gets pulled effectively over the eyes.
>>>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean >>>>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > >For some definitions of "is". It is a solution of Maxwell's equations for an E.M. field. Ergo, it is a field.
>>>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense >>>alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] >Well, since I consider photons to be an artefact of the measuring device >this is not relevant. That is not a solution of any equations.
>>For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has >>an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an >>electromagnetic field. > >An EM wave has an EM field... is ..
>>>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that >>>would express forces even in the event of no movement. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > >Which are basically unobserved and 'virtual', hmm.... "virtual" is just a word which means not directly observed. As I find positivism logically incoherent, I do not subscribe to it as a view of physics. Reality is whether we observe it or not, and cannot be inconsistent. If we do not start with that premise, we may as well be solipsists and science is meaningless.
Regards
 Signature Charles Francis moderator sci.physics.foundations. charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and braces)
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boson boss - 22 Dec 2007 19:59 GMT On Dec 20, 11:45 pm, "Timo A. Nieminen" <t...@physics.uq.edu.au> wrote:
> > Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > > an EM field. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your > detector, at a single instant of time. Most textbooks that I saw have sort of a chain-like figures that "elaborate" how a electromagnetic wave is formed. Forgive me if I'm wrong, but in the time around Faraday there was an experiment with real metal chains to demonstrate the claim.
However, different frequencies like microwaves and radio waves have huge photons. Did quantum physics end at some point when going up the scales? Can't say.
Do microwaves break apart? I don't know either, lets say no. There are experiments with polarizing magnets even for light so the components of field seem to be there.
> Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean > by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and > an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a > wavefunction for photons. I suppose that photons can't be seen from aside.
> For a plane wave mode, you'll have E=0 and H=0 for a single photon, > since there is no localisation at all - the photon can be anywhere and > anywhen. For a wavepacket, non-zero fields (but beware of "confined", a > Gaussian wavepacket extends to infinity in space and time). I don't understand. :-)
Thomas Smid - 22 Dec 2007 23:32 GMT On 11 Dec, 02:57, il...@abv.bg wrote:
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has > an EM field. Yes, it has. This is for instance proven by the experimental fact that in the photoelectric effect the photoelectrons are primarily emitted parallel to the electric polarization vector of the light, but not parallel to its direction of propagation (as one would expect it from a 'billiard ball' -type particle model) (see http://prola.aps.org/abstract/PR/v37/i10/p1233_1 ).
As the only way for light to interact with matter is through its EM field, one can therefore say that it IS indeed an EM field (although this can of course be localized to a certain degree in the form of so called 'wave packets').
Thomas
boson boss - 25 Dec 2007 19:23 GMT > On 11 Dec, 02:57, il...@abv.bg wrote: > [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > Thomas Photons are a part of the standard model as elementary particles. Maybe there is some experiment that probes the cohesiveness of a photon (probably some large one).
Metal rods can polarize microwaves and the demonstration is often available at schools. Different dimensions of rods could turn the polarizer into receiving antenna, no?
CarlB - 24 Dec 2007 15:35 GMT On Dec 22, 3:35 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> wrote: ...
> But (as she says in the abstract), her position operator does > not transform as a vector, hence everything, including the > probability of observing a photon in some region of space, > is orientation dependent. This makes her construction unphysical. Perhaps a better reference for Hawkins' method is the 6-year-old paper with Baylis:
http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0101011
Baylis and Hawkins write:
> However, the photon (as well as other massless particles of spin S > 1/2 ) > has only two linearly independent spin states, and in these states the spin [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > are independent of helicity, and there is consequently no disagreement > as to the actual position of the photon. In other words, the effect of a change in orientation is just a gauge transformation and is not unphysical.
Indeed the method does not gives a position wave function in the manner of the Schroedinger wave equation (as described in your FAQ linked above). Such a scalar wave function could be turned into a vector position operator that would meet your requirements.
Instead, the method gives a position wave function that uses a 3x3 matrix. If you rotate coordinates, you end up with a geometric phase, sometimes called Pancharatnam phase, or Berry phase or Berry-Pancharatnam phase.
I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more natural object as a density matrix / density operator density. The presence of that 3x3 matrix makes me think this will work out naturally. Of course a density matix doesn't transform as a vector but certainly is not "unphysical" as density matrices are an alternative formalism of quantum mechanics as valid as any other.
Carl Brannen
Arnold Neumaier - 04 Jan 2008 05:34 GMT CarlB schrieb:
> On Dec 22, 3:35 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> > wrote: [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > Perhaps a better reference for Hawkins' method is the 6-year-old > paper with Baylis: Her name is Hawton, not Hawkins...
> http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0101011 I can't find her reasoning convincing and suspect that it is faulty.
> Baylis and Hawkins write: (on p.30)
>> However, the photon (as well as other massless particles of spin S > 1/2 ) >> has only two linearly independent spin states, and in these states the spin >> is coupled to the momentum. As a result, its position operator is a matrix >> that does not commute with the spin. This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand? On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix components.
Moreover, it is not clear what the argument is supposed to be. The spin commutes with the momentum, but there is no clear meaning of ''in these states the spin is coupled to the momentum'', and it is even less clear in which sense this could imply anything about a potential position operator.
>> Different selections of the function >> p () generally give different position operators, so that the position >> operator is not unique and does not transform under J as a simple vector. This means that it does not contain the physical information about localization required of a position operator. One can construct arbitrary objects and give them names that sound interesting, but this does not give them physical content. The probability of being in a nonspherical domain cannot depend on the coordinate system used. I believe (and argued the reason in my FAQ) that this implies that the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5.
>> However, the eigenvectors of any one of these unitarily equivalent position >> operators gives a basis of localized states with unique eigenvalues that [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > In other words, the effect of a change in orientation is just a gauge > transformation and is not unphysical. Try to compute the probability of the photon being in some nonspherical region, or the expectation of some spherically nonsymmetric function of position. I predict that you'll find that these depend on the gauge and hence are unphysical.
She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28) to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully; I'd appreciate if you could provide the missing details to check what is going on.
> Indeed the method does not gives a position wave function > in the manner of the Schroedinger wave equation (as described [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > geometric phase, sometimes called Pancharatnam phase, > or Berry phase or Berry-Pancharatnam phase. Is this phase a number or also a 3x3 matrix? If it is the latter, which is most likely (I doidn't wade through all details of the 42 page paper) the gauge transform will change probabilities.
If the position operator has commuting components, it can be diagonalized. The joint null space of the components of the position operator will be d-dimensional for some d (possibly infinite), and the wave function in this diagonal representation will have the form psi(r) with d-dimensional psi(r). The canonical commutation relations imply that momentum is represented as in a usual Schroedinger wave equation.
But angular momentum apparently is not represented as in a Schr"odinger or Pauli equation, since this would give standard commutation relations with the position operator.
Finding d and exhibiting the nonstandard action of the angular momentum in this position representation would give insight into what really happens.
> I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more > natural object as a density matrix / density operator > density. Do you mean because the phase disappears? But this only happens if the phase is a pure number, which I suspect isn't. If the density operator is gauge dependent, as I suspect, Hawton's construction is faulty.
I also prefer treating quantum mechanics directly via density matrices rather than via state vectors, but the mathematics is equivalent in both cases. Seeing your quantum mechanics book draft at http://brannenworks.com/dmaa.pdf, I guess that you should like my papers A. Neumaier, On the foundations of thermodynamics, arXiv:0705.3790 and A. Neumaier, Ensembles and experiments in classical and quantum physics, Int. J. Mod. Phys. B 17 (2003), 2937-2980. quant-ph/0303047.
Arnold Neumaier
MargH - 13 Jan 2008 18:57 GMT Our photon wave function papers seem to have become an integral part of the "EM field of photon thread" between Dec.11 2007 and Jan.7 2008. This is great fun, and I am happy to respond now that you have pointed this out to me. However, it is important not to loose the forest while looking at the trees, and I think following the tread will just be more trees. We wrote a series of papers on photon position operators and wave functions.
1999, Phys. Rev. A 59, 954, brute force construction of a position operator with commuting components and transverse eigenvectors,
1999, Phys. Rev. A 59, 3223, naïve wave function paper, but wave function is A, and it is covariant
2001, arXiv:quant-ph/0101011, generalization of the 1999 position op from momentum space spherical polar coordinates to include all possible transverse basis using Euler angles. There is mathematically analogous to the magnetic monopole in coordinate space, and we got carried away with analysis of it, but I don't think this analogy is very important physically. This is the paper that became the subject of discussion in January. We called the position operator a matrix because it involves the spin-1 operator. This was in an attempt to avoid confusion, but it appears that it caused more confusion than it avoided.
2004, arXiv:quant-ph/0408017. Here I think we got to the heart of the physical interpretation, based on my new found understanding of the angular momentum of optical beams after reading the literature on this subject. We found that It is not possible to construct a transverse localized state without introducing a vortex structure. Thus the localized states are not spherically symmetric, and this is why our position operator does not transform as a vector. Viewed from another coordinate system, the axis of the vortex may be rotated, and the extra term in the position operator just rotates this axis. I don't think there is anything unphysical about this.
2007, arXiv:0711.0112. The eigenvectors of our photon position operator form a basis of transverse and longitudinal localized states. The qed state vector |psi> can be projected onto this basis, giving a coordinate space photon wave function. It looks like <0|A|psi> where A is a qed operator, eg the vector potential. It is not the usual expectation value, <psi|A|psi>.
2007, arXiv:0705.3196. This is an earlier expanded version of the above and quite an extensive discussion of the photon wave function literature.
I hop to respond to the Jan.7 comments later.
CarlB - 07 Jan 2008 13:00 GMT Arnold, thank you for your detailed examination of this. Please forgive my likely poor understanding and typing errors, and thanks in advance for continuing to look at this.
On Jan 3, 9:36 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> wrote: ..
> This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position > operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand? > On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix > components. An analogy to this would be the 3-vector of 2x2 matrices known as the Pauli spin matrices. One doesn't normally think of Pauli spin matrices as a position operator, but I'll get back to that later in the post.
> Try to compute the probability of the photon being in some nonspherical > region, or the expectation of some spherically nonsymmetric function > of position. I predict that you'll find that these depend on the > gauge and hence are unphysical. If one can calculate probabilities consistently in spherical regions, then it seems to me that real analysis will show that all compact regions follow.
> She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28) > to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully; > I'd appreciate if you could provide the missing details to check > what is going on. I hope that what I will be showing applies to what they did. However, life is short, and instead of carefully reviewing their paper to see if what they meant is what I'm guessing, I'm just going to quickly type the calculations to show that matrix wave functions are natural. This turns out to be a subject that is near and dear to my heart and one that I can type up very quickly. I'm guessing that it applies to what they did, but I dread looking through the several dozen pages to see if this is the case.
> > Instead, the method gives a position wave function that uses > > a 3x3 matrix. If you rotate coordinates, you end up with a [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > which is most likely (I doidn't wade through all details of the > 42 page paper) the gauge transform will change probabilities. Geometric phase is a psuedoscalar, at least in the Pauli algebra. Geometric phase shows up as exp( i k \sigma_x\sigma_y\sigma_z), where \sigma_n are the Pauli spin matrices. So you can call it a "number" or a 2x2 matrix, depending on what you wish to call the unit matrix multiplied by a complex number. I don't play much with spin-1, but I know that photons carry geometric phase identical in formula to that of electrons and so I suspect it is similar. From a Clifford algebra point of view, these are all just multivectors.
> > I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more > > natural object as a density matrix / density operator [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > > Arnold Neumaier Thank you for the references! I will read them after I get done typing up this note on how one can end up with matrix valued wave functions, how they are interpreted, and a simple example.
GETTING MATRICES FROM STATES
While the density matrix and state vector representations are supposed to be equivalent, a given problem can be a lot easier in one formalism than the other. If we happen to have a solution psi(x) to a problem in the state vector formalism, it is easy to convert it into density matrix form:
rho(x,x') = psi^*(x) psi(x').
But it is not so clear how to do the reverse transformation.
When one converts from a state vector to a density matrix one loses the arbitrary phase information. To do the reverse conversion, one must choose an arbitrary phase.
In the case of a scalar wave function, one can choose a point 0' where rho(x,0') is not identically zero, and define
psi(x) = rho(x,0').
and we can multiply the above by an arbitrary phase, and may have to adjust normalization if desired. The choice of "0'" to designate the arbitrary point is following the notation of Julian Schwinger, who figured out everything I'm writing here in 1952. In his notation, the density matrix rho(x,x') is written M(x,x') and he called this the "measurement algebra". See his 1959 introduction paper:
http://brannenworks.com/E8/SchwingerAlgMicMeas.pdf
and the first two pages of his second paper: http://brannenworks.com/E8/SchwingerGeomQS.pdf
It should be clear that in making the above assignment, that is, in choosing psi(x) = rho(x,0'), what we are really doing is convoluting rho with an arbitrarily chosen delta function:
psi(x) = \int rho(x,x') delta(x',0') dx'
Writing the above in bra-ket form, what is going on is something like (forgive my abuse of the notation in not properly labeling the states):
|> = \int |x><x'| |x'><0'| dx' = |x><0'| \int (<x'|x'>) dx' = |x><0'|
That is, we can think of what we've done as that we haven't converted a density matrix into a state vector. What we did instead was to rewrite a density matrix by applying a constant density matrix to its right side. This is what Schwinger called the "fictitious vacuum" in his second paper.
THE CASE OF SPIN
The problem gets harder when the quantum state has spin. If it is a spin-1/2 problem, then a solution to the problem is as follows:
Choose an arbitrary matrix valued delta function that does not annihilate rho(x,x'). Again write:
psi(x) = \int rho(x,x') delta(x',0') dx'
but now rho, delta, (and also psi!) has been upgraded from complex functions to matrix valued functions. The result is that psi is a matrix valued function that has an interpretation as a state vector.
In converting a density matrix state into state vector form we got back the arbitrary phase by making an arbitrary choice of what Schwinger called the "fictitious vacuum".
When Schwinger does this, he does not call it by "density matrix" and "state vector" so it may not be obvious that the above is a valid way to produce a spinor. A mathematical reference might help. See Ablamowicz and Sobczyk "Lectures on Clifford (Geometric) Algebras and Applications", page 18, section 1.6, "Square matrix spinors". In this and the next section, Pertti Lounesto shows how ideals of a Clifford algebra generate spinors. And he does it with the familiar 2x2 Pauli matrix notation so it is very easily understood like this example:
EXAMPLE CALCULATION
As an example, let's work in qubits. Define the state rho(x,x') by the matrix
[0 1] = |+x><+x| [1 0]
We wish to find a state vector corresponding to this state (which is spin +1/2 in the +x direction). We choose an arbitrary "fictitious vacuum" state. The usual choice is:
[1 0] = |0><0| [0 0]
Because the right column is zero, any time we multiply a matrix on the right by this matrix, the resulting product will also be zero on the right:
[a b][1 0] [c d][0 0] =
[a 0] [c 0].
Therefore, matrices multiplied on the right by our choice of |0><0| have elements that are nonzero only on their left half. That makes them isomorphic to kets as is easily verified by considering matrix multiplication.
THE ANNIHILATION PROBLEM
The above method of converting a density matrix into a state vector fails if the choice of "fictitious vacuum" happens to annihilate the state we are interested in. For that reason, if the density matrix state is not known in advance to us, it might makes sense to leave it in density matrix form.
Alternatively, we can choose an orientation maybe like Hawton and Baylis did. Now I haven't looked carefully through their article, but I would think that if you did this, there could be some problems with annihilation. That would mean that you can't actually represent some state in this manner.
But if you go back to the pure density matrix formulation, the annihilation problem goes away. Any way, this all gives a natural reason for keeping a representation of a quantum object in matrix form, even when it is put into state vector form.
Carl
Arnold Neumaier - 07 Jan 2008 15:53 GMT CarlB schrieb:
> Arnold, thank you for your detailed examination of this. Please > forgive my likely poor understanding and typing errors, and thanks [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > then it seems to me that real analysis will show that all compact > regions follow. Only if the centers are arbitrary. So calculate the probabilities for spherical regions with arbitrary centers, and I predict you'll get problems.
>> She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28) >> to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully; [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > a "number" or a 2x2 matrix, depending on what you wish to call > the unit matrix multiplied by a complex number. I have nothing against matrix-valued components, but she should say so, and not call a vector of matrices a matrix.
> I don't play > much with spin-1, Spin 1/2 or spin 1 makes the difference between existence and nonexistence of a position operator. Thus simple extrapolation from spin 1/2 (which is the basis for the remainder of your mail) is inadequate.
> but I know that photons carry geometric > phase identical in formula to that of electrons and so I suspect > it is similar. From a Clifford algebra point of view, these are > all just multivectors. Arnold Neumaier
MargH - 18 Jan 2008 20:16 GMT On Jan 4, 12:36 am, Arnold Neumaier wrote
> This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position > operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand? > On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix > components. I took position to imply a vector, in the same way that velocity implies a vector. I guess I should have been more explicit and referred to the components of the position 3-vector as matrices, but I didn't anticipate this misinterpretation. I think the explicit expression for the position operator, r=i I Del+kxS/|k|+ ... is clear. In our papers r, k and S are bold to denote vectors and I is the 3x3 unit matrix.
> the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with > the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5. I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed. The position operator determines the localized basis states. These localized states have definite total angular momentum in some specified direction. But the coefficient of these basis vectors in the expression for the wave function can modify this to give the correct angular momentum for any physical state. The absolute value squared of the coefficient of the localized state is the probability density to detect a photon at r with the z-component of angular momentum of the localized state. This is not so different from the case of the electron where spin + or -1/2 is relative to some specified axis.
> > I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more > > natural object as a density matrix / density operator > > density. There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-density-ope rator-formalism/
margaret.hawton@lakeheadu.ca http://physics.lakeheadu.ca/facNstaff/hawton/hawton.html
Arnold Neumaier - 21 Jan 2008 22:46 GMT MargH schrieb:
> On Jan 4, 12:36 am, Arnold Neumaier wrote > [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > > I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed. The most important object that can be constructed from a good position operator is a (state-dependent) probability density rho(x) for a photon being at position x, so that Pr(A) = integral_{x in A} dx rho(x) is the probability of being in the set A. Since the components of your position operator \r (backslash for bold) commute, these components can be diagonalized simultaneously, and the projection operator P(A) which suppresses the eigenvalues of \r outside A is well-defined. Thus Pr(A):= psi^* P(A) psi should define the desired probability, and a corresponding probability density rho(x).
But I believe (and argued for it in my FAQ) that this probability density is coordinate-system dependent unless the standard commutation relations with angular momentum hold. Since it fails for your construction, your probability density will be coordinate-system dependent, which is physically absurd.
Thus I deny your construction the physical relevance until you can convince me that you get coordinate-system independent probabilities.
It would be illuminating if you could compute the spectral representation in which your \r acts diagonally. This would both give expression for rho(x), which would be of independent physical interest, and give insight into the nonstandard action of the angular momentum on this representation.
But I predict that when you find this representation, it will be manifestly coordinate system dependent, and does not provide a probability desnity with the physically necessary invariance properties.
>>> I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more >>> natural object as a density matrix / density operator >>> density. > > There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at > http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-density-ope rator-formalism/ ??? This seems to be about consistent histories, not about photon positions...
Arnold Neumaier
Richard Saam - 15 Feb 2008 20:47 GMT > MargH schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 63 lines] > > Arnold Neumaier Perhaps a suggestion is relevant to the physical meaning of this discussion in the context of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation CMBR
Is there a mass density associated with photons or not?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background_radiation Quote: The big bang theory suggests that the cosmic microwave background fills all of observable space, and that most of the radiation energy in the universe is in the cosmic microwave background, which makes up a fraction of roughly 5E-5 of the total density of the universe. UnQuote
The fraction 5E-5 is obtained in the context of Black Body Theory. CMBR is the most perfect Black Body in nature, so this is appropriate.
Black Body radiation (power/area/time) = stefan's constant x T^4 T= 2.7 K for CMBR.
The mass density of the Black Body is computed as: CMBR Black Body radiation (mass/volume) = (4/c^3) x stefan's constant x T^4
This mass density is roughly 5E-5 of the universe critical density ~1E-29 g/cm^3 or ~5E-34 g/cc
So in terms of this calculation derived from the very foundation of quantum mechanics the photonic oscillators within the Black Body have mass density.
This is consistent in a fundamental manner with margaret hawton's presentation.
The factor T^4 is very powerful.
At high black body temperatures (T) significant photonic mass densities (~T^4) can be achieved.
Richard D. Saam
Arnold Neumaier - 18 Feb 2008 21:57 GMT Richard Saam schrieb:
> Perhaps a suggestion is relevant to the physical meaning of this discussion > in the context of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation CMBR > > Is there a mass density associated with photons or not? The rest mass density is zero, but the energy-momentum tensor is nontrivial. Thus photons couple to gravity as well.
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background_radiation > Quote: [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > This is consistent in a fundamental manner with margaret hawton's > presentation. I don't see the connection between mass density and position operators. Could you please explain what you mean?
Arnold Neumaier
sr - 15 Feb 2008 20:47 GMT This thread seems to have gone quiet, but without a satisfying resolution. I'd like to request further discussion about MargH's position operator, and Arnold Neumaier's objections.
Summarizing....
Arnold Neumaier wrote:
>>> [...objections to MargH's position operator...] >>> >>> [...] the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with >>> the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5. [...] MargH said:
>> I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed. I don't understand your reasons behind this opinion. It seems natural to me that the position vector should satisfy the standard commutation rules with the angular momentum, so I was surprised that you think differently. Could you elaborate on your reasons, please?
>> There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at >>http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-...
> ??? This seems to be about consistent histories, not about photon > positions... There is discussion about the Hawton position operator further down on that webpage. (Note that the rather puzzling statement therein about "our probabilities will end up not as real numbers, but instead as real multiples of matrices" must be read carefully in the context of the preceding consistent histories stuff to understand what is meant.)
Arnold Neumaier - 18 Feb 2008 15:29 GMT sr schrieb:
> This thread seems to have gone quiet, but without a satisfying > resolution. I'd like to request further discussion about MargH's [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > There is discussion about the Hawton position operator further down on > that webpage. Ah, I had given up up about halfway...
The statement there about ''Newton's and Wigner's insistence on a complete rotational manifold'' is misguided. Actuall, Newton and Wigner only treated the massive case, where one indeed has the full set of spin states. The massless case is treated in passing at the end of their paper, where they mention that the conclusion then are different for spin > 1/2 (and, reading between the lines, just _because_ of the transversality of the photon.)
> (Note that the rather puzzling statement therein about > "our probabilities will end up not as real numbers, but instead as real > multiples of matrices" must be read carefully in the context of the > preceding consistent histories stuff to understand what is meant.) I have no idea which meaning could be assigned to matrix-valued probabilities; neither is it clear to me why Hawton's approach should yield such probabilities; the blog does not seem to give details.
The trace is discarded without good reasons in the paragraph before the heading ''Hawton's Photon Position Operator'',
In the formula for Pr(H) a few paragraphs before, the trace is already missing after each equal sign. But the trace is necessary (and it is indeed mentioned in the English context). With the trace, the probabilities discussed there become ordinary numbers; without the trace, the formulas simply become wrong: The third equality would not be correct since, as the context states, it uses the fact that tr AB = tr BA.
Thus if the probabilities for being in some region of space are indeed matrices rather than numbers then an interpretation of the resulting probability matrix calculus - that would make the formalism meaningful - is missing.
On the other hand, if the probabilities for being in some region of space are ordinary numbers (as I think they should be) then their independence of the Cartesian coordinate system used is in doubt. If these probabilities change under a rotation of the coordinate system, they cannot be physical.
I fear the latter is the case...
Arnold
CarlB - 20 Feb 2008 07:09 GMT > I have no idea which meaning could be assigned to matrix-valued > probabilities; neither is it clear to me why Hawton's approach > should yield such probabilities; the blog does not seem to give details. ...
> On the other hand, if the probabilities for being in some region > of space are ordinary numbers (as I think they should be) The post is rather clear on this. Rather than take traces, a mathematically equivalent method of defining probabilities for pure quantum states is to take them as the real multiples of primitive idempotents (states). By doing this, one keeps one's formalism entirely in matrix form. Probabilities are not matrices, but ratios of matrices.
Perhaps this isn't sufficiently explicit. Working in a finite Hilbert space, let B be a primitive idempotent. Then BB = B and trace(B) = 1.
Let M be some matrix. Then BMB is also a matrix, and by the properties of primitive idempotents, it will be a complex multiple of B. Therefore, assign <M>_B to be this complex multiple. This allows one to define quantum averages without need of specifying "trace". Instead, trace is built into the definition of "primitive idempotent".
> In the formula for Pr(H) a few paragraphs before, the trace > is already missing after each equal sign. But the trace is necessary [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > The third equality would not be correct since, as the context states, > it uses the fact that tr AB = tr BA. You don't have to define probabilties with "trace" in order to have the equivalent of tr(AB) = tr(BA). However, since the alternative definition of probabilities gives the same numbers as the trace, one can move back and forth between the definitions however one wishes. Similarly, when one is working in the density matrix formalism, it is frequently very convenient to take results well known in spinor formalism and use them.
ABA is a complex (real for Hermitian) multiple of A, and BAB is a complex multiple of B. The statement that tr(AB) = tr(BA) amounts to the observation that the "complex multiples" involved (i.e. ABA / A and BAB / B), are the same.
To prove this, without reference to trace is easy and I will leave it as an exercise for the reader with one hint: It might be useful to prove that the matrix product of two primitive idempotents AB is either zero, or a complex multiple of a (not necessarily Hermitian) primitive idempotent. What do you suppose that complex multiple would be?
Somewhere in here I should mention that density matrices are particularly handy in QFT in that virtual particles are density matrices. When one writes the formalism in density matrix form, one unifies the formalism for the virtual and real states.
I think the most useful applications of density matrices is in deep bound states. In analyzing these, one wants to have the initial and final states both be bound states.
The usual QFT makes the initial and final states free, but for a deeply bound state they should instead be virtual states. In other words, one needs to analyze deeply bound states by ignoring the state vectors that one usually sandwhiches the virtual states between, but instead one looks at the algebra of the virtual states among themselves.
To do all this, it helps to look at things from a point of view where the virtual particles are at the foundation and the real particles are just approximations of virtual particles. And that is why density matrices are useful to understand.
On the other hand, if you are dealing in the usual formalism where the state vectors are fundamental, then it makes perfect sense to define average values by <a| M | a>. And that naturally turns into traces in the density matrix formalism. From the spinor point of view, defining probabilities as ratios of matrices is rather contrived, but from a density matrix point of view, the trace is also a rather contrived object.
As is usual in QM, the different formalisms give the same result. It's just easier in one formalism or another to set up the problem.
CarlB - 23 Feb 2008 15:16 GMT On the subject of extracting information from quantum states which are thought of as operators (density matrices) rather than vectors from a Hilbert space, I've added a blog post covering what is variously called "Berry phase" or "Pancharatnam-Berry phase" or "quantum phase":
http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/02/23/Berry
Berry phase is the phase that arises when a quantum state is sent through a sequence of states back to its original state. It is possible that it will pick up an overall phase change when this happens. In general, one must go through a sequence of at least two other states for this to happen as it is due to non commutativity.
Density matrices of qubits are particularly convenient for this sort of calculation since the arbitrary complex phase of the spinor is eliminated from them. The remaining phase information is Berry phase and nothing else.
In making the calculations, it is very natural to use the same formalism that confused Neumaier in the last few posts. That is, while previously probabilities (real numbers) were given as real multiples of (primitive idempotent or quantum state) matrices, in Berry phase calculations, it is natural to obtain complex numbers as the complex multiples of primitive idempotents.
All these things work because if P is a primitive idempotent, and s and t are complex numbers, one has (sP) (tP) = (st P) and (sP + tP) = (s+t)P, etc., so in considering the complex multiples of a primitive idempotent (or ideal), one has a perfectly adequate copy of the complex numbers.
The kind of calculations one does in this manner are described in the above blog post, with the example calculation being the Berry phase of the Pauli algebra (spin -1/2).
But this sort of phase calculation is much more general than that. While the Pauli algebra has a natural imaginary unit given by the product of the three Pauli spin matrices, a more general Clifford algebra may have no natural imaginary unit.
For example, in the complex Dirac algebra with signature -+++, the x and y vectors (which are usually written as gamma_1 and gamma_2 but I will write as x and y to simplify symbols and to promote the observation that these are analogs of the Pauli algebra sigma matrices) satisfy the following relations:
x x = y y = (ixy) (ixy) = 1, x y = -y x, x (ixy) = -(ixy) x, y (ixy) = -(ixy) y.
These are identical to the usual relations of the Pauli algebra: x x = y y = z z = 1, x y = - y x, x z = - z x, y z = - z y, with the replacement z == ixy.
This is generically true for any anticommuting bilinears taken from the Dirac algebra; such a pair of elements, when their signatures are corrected with possible multiplication by i so that they square to +1, give a representation of the Pauli algebra.
Therefore, the Berry phase calculations done in the Pauli algebra can be taken also for quantum states rotated around the "Bloch sphere" defined by two such anticommuting Clifford algebra elements.
And in all these cases, computations are most easily made when one is computing with respect to the complex multiples of matrices rather than dealing with complex numbers per se.
So the notation looks like Phase( ABCA ) where A, B, C, and A are matrices. To compute the "phase of a matrix", one notes that if A is a primitive idempotent, a product that begins and ends with A, such as AMA, is a complex multiple of A. In the usual formalism, this would be tr(AM) = tr (AMA). So for those who are easily confused, the notation Phase(AMA) can be thought of as an abbreviation for Phase( tr (AMA) ). The same applies to probabilities.
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