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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Research / February 2008



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EM field of photon

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ilper@abv.bg - 11 Dec 2007 02:57 GMT
Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
an EM field.

How does it look like if one can measure it in space and
time?
Uncle Al - 11 Dec 2007 21:39 GMT
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> an EM field.
>
> How does it look like if one can measure it in space and
> time?

Two orthogonal in-phase sine waves (electric and magnetic fields) that
in turn are orthogonal to the direction of propagation.

<http://www.photobiology.info/graphics/photochem03.gif>
<http://www.profc.udec.cl/~gabriel/tutoriales/rsnote/cp1/1-2-1.gif>
<http://www.profc.udec.cl/~gabriel/tutoriales/rsnote/cp1/1-2-2.gif>

Experiment:  Excite an atom, let it decay.  A photon is ejected,
linear momentum is conserved.  The recoil of the atom tells you where
the photon went.  Is the photon invisible from other directions?

Signature

Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

ilper@abv.bg - 12 Dec 2007 14:40 GMT
> il...@abv.bg wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> Uncle Alhttp://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
>  (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

But this is just a classical picture. The photon is a truly quantum
object received by quantization of that this field of alternating E
and B.
In fact I expected something in the spirit of QM.
I'm not sure from what kind of wavefunction one should start from.
I imagine one must start from the QED wavefunction [...> of the vector-
potential A which is (?? and Zuber b.e.) integral from a classical
A(x,t) (satisfieng Maxwell) time the creation operator a+  time
vaccuum [0>. This states are build as so that they are eigenfunction
of energy and number of photons.
So I believe in the sense of QM one must apply the A operator to the
QED wavefunction [...> to get the values of A (then using rot and div
to obtain E and B).
But as A~a+a(+) this is not an eigenfunction of A. So I expect to have
a spectrum of values for A - A(i)each one emerging with a certain
probability.
As a mean value the classical EB field should emerge from this.

[ Mod. note: That's a pretty good answer to your own question, Ilian.
   -ik :-) ]

Ilian
Oh No - 14 Dec 2007 07:00 GMT
Thus spake ilper@abv.bg
>> il...@abv.bg wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 42 lines]
>
>Ilian

Indeed it is. I have given a treatment of photons from this point of
view, leading to Maxwell's equations as expectation values of the
operator A, in gr-qc/0605127.

Regards

Signature

Charles Francis
moderator sci.physics.foundations.
charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and
braces)

Arnold Neumaier - 14 Dec 2007 07:00 GMT
ilper@abv.bg schrieb:
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> an EM field.
>
> How does it look like if one can measure it in space and
> time?

Have a look at the entry
        S4k. What is a photon?
in the theoretical physics FAQ at
        http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txt
where everything is esplained in detail.

Arnold Neumaier
p.kinsler@ic.ac.uk - 20 Dec 2007 22:45 GMT
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> an EM field.

> How does it look like if one can measure it in space and
> time?

M. Hawton has published some intersting stuff, e.g.

http://arxiv.org/abs/0711.0112v1

.. earlier work by her along the same lines also exists.

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Blackett Laboratory (QOLS)        (ph) +44-20-759-47520 (fax) 47714
Imperial College London,          Dr.Paul.Kinsler@physics.org
SW7 2BW, United Kingdom.          http://www.qols.ph.ic.ac.uk/~kinsle/

Public Key: http://www.qols.ph.ic.ac.uk/~kinsle/key/work-key-2002a

Arnold Neumaier - 22 Dec 2007 23:32 GMT
p.kinsler@ic.ac.uk schrieb:
>> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
>> an EM field.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> http://arxiv.org/abs/0711.0112v1

But (as she says in the abstract), her position operator does
not transform as a vector, hence everything, including the
probability of observing a photon in some region of space,
is orientation dependent. This makes her construction unphysical.

There is no way around the fact that a probability interpretation
via a Schroedinger wave function in position space requires a
position operator with the standard commutation relations with
itself, with momentum, and with angular momentum.

But there is no such position vector for photons.
This was stated without proof by Newton and Wigner in 1949, and
proved by Wightman in 1962. (If someone knows of an earlier published
proof, I'd be interested in a reference.)

A detailed discussion is given in the entry
   ''S2g. Particle positions and the position operator''
of my theoretical physics FAQ at
   http://www.mat.univie.ac.at/~neum/physics-faq.txt

Arnold Neumaier
Timo A. Nieminen - 20 Dec 2007 22:45 GMT
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> an EM field.
>
> How does it look like if one can measure it in space and
> time?

How does it look? To the best resolution of our measurements, point-like
in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your
detector, at a single instant of time.

Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a
wavefunction for photons.

For a plane wave mode, you'll have E=0 and H=0 for a single photon,
since there is no localisation at all - the photon can be anywhere and
anywhen. For a wavepacket, non-zero fields (but beware of "confined", a
Gaussian wavepacket extends to infinity in space and time).

Signature

Timo Nieminen - Home page: http://www.physics.uq.edu.au/people/nieminen/
E-prints: http://eprint.uq.edu.au/view/person/Nieminen,_Timo_A..html
Shrine to Spirits: http://www.users.bigpond.com/timo_nieminen/spirits.html

Oz - 26 Dec 2007 16:00 GMT
Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes

>> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
>> an EM field.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your
>detector, at a single instant of time.

No. This characteristic is that of the detector. The pixel is not a
photon.

>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
>an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a
>wavefunction for photons.

An electromagnetic wave has an EM field, by definition.
If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense
alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some
element of EM field. Its most certainly true that a large number of
photons making a beam has a measurable EM field. What is less clear is
whether a static electric field (say) can be considered a photon,
although its certainly true that any disturbance (in time) of such a
field will produce EM waves. Of course this applies to two charged
particles interacting providing they move (otherwise their combined
field is static), so one immediately gets EM waves, and thus photons
from interacting charged particles.

I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that
would express forces even in the event of no movement. I imagine these
would express some sort of self-cancelling standing wave that would
precisely express the electric field.

Signature

Oz
This post is worth absolutely nothing and is probably fallacious.

Oh No - 26 Dec 2007 19:41 GMT
Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
>Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes
>>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>No. This characteristic is that of the detector. The pixel is not a
>photon.

You ignore the fact that a locality condition is obeyed by the photon
field operator, A(x), quite separately and independently of the locality
condition for charged particles. In that sense, the photon has as much
right to be considered a particle as an electron.

>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
>>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
>>an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a
>>wavefunction for photons.
>
>An electromagnetic wave has an EM field, by definition.

it *is* an em field, by definition.

>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense
>alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>field is static), so one immediately gets EM waves, and thus photons
>from interacting charged particles.

photons do not generate other photons, in the way that charged particles
generate photons. For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has
an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an
electromagnetic field.

>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that
>would express forces even in the event of no movement.

It does. That is qed.

> I imagine these
>would express some sort of self-cancelling standing wave that would
>precisely express the electric field.

I find it better understood as a two way flow of photons.

Regards

Signature

Charles Francis
moderator sci.physics.foundations.
charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and
braces)

http://www.teleconnection.info/rqg/MainIndex

Oz - 02 Jan 2008 10:54 GMT
Oh No <NotI@charlesfrancis.wanadoo.co.uk> writes
>Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
>>Timo A. Nieminen <timo@physics.uq.edu.au> writes
[quoted text clipped - 16 lines]
>condition for charged particles. In that sense, the photon has as much
>right to be considered a particle as an electron.

In that formulation, of course.
And it works well.
However significantly abstruse mathematics that effectively turn a
particle into a wave are required ti obtain the correct results.

>>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
>>>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
>it *is* an em field, by definition.

For some definitions of "is".

>>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense
>>alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>photons do not generate other photons, in the way that charged particles
>generate photons.

Well, since I consider photons to be an artefact of the measuring device
this is not relevant.

>For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has
>an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an
>electromagnetic field.

An EM wave has an EM field...

>>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that
>>would express forces even in the event of no movement.
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>
>I find it better understood as a two way flow of photons.

Which are basically unobserved and 'virtual', hmm....

Signature

Oz
This post is worth absolutely nothing and is probably fallacious.

Oh No - 03 Jan 2008 18:09 GMT
Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
>Oh No <NotI@charlesfrancis.wanadoo.co.uk> writes
>>Thus spake Oz <Oz@farmeroz.port995.com>
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
>However significantly abstruse mathematics that effectively turn a
>particle into a wave are required ti obtain the correct results.

The maths is abstruse, and actually ill founded, whichever way it is
approached. But at least I think can straighten out the particle
approach, whereas I don't see any way to straighten out the field
approach. Mostly it seems to be a matter of making things so abstruse
that the wool gets pulled effectively over the eyes.

>>>>Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
>>>>by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>
>For some definitions of "is".

It is a solution of Maxwell's equations for an E.M. field. Ergo, it is a
field.

>>>If one is to say that an EM wave and a photon are in some sense
>>>alternative descriptions of a phenomenon then clearly a photon has some
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>Well, since I consider photons to be an artefact of the measuring device
>this is not relevant.

That is not a solution of any equations.

>>For this reason it is wrong to say that a photon has
>>an electromagnetic field in the sense that a charged particle has an
>>electromagnetic field.
>
>An EM wave has an EM field...

is ..

>>>I suspect a proper QM argument would result in virtual particles that
>>>would express forces even in the event of no movement.
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>
>Which are basically unobserved and 'virtual', hmm....

"virtual" is just a word which means not directly observed. As I find
positivism logically incoherent, I do not subscribe to it as a view of
physics. Reality is whether we observe it or not, and cannot be
inconsistent. If we do not start with that premise, we may as well be
solipsists and science is meaningless.

Regards

Signature

Charles Francis
moderator sci.physics.foundations.
charles (dot) e (dot) h (dot) francis (at) googlemail.com (remove spaces and
braces)

http://www.teleconnection.info/rqg/MainIndex

boson boss - 22 Dec 2007 19:59 GMT
On Dec 20, 11:45 pm, "Timo A. Nieminen" <t...@physics.uq.edu.au>
wrote:
> > Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> > an EM field.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> in both space and time - you only detect it on a single pixel of your
> detector, at a single instant of time.

Most textbooks that I saw have sort of a chain-like figures that
"elaborate" how a electromagnetic wave is formed. Forgive me if I'm
wrong, but in the time around Faraday there was an experiment with
real metal chains to demonstrate the claim.

However, different frequencies like microwaves and radio waves have
huge photons. Did quantum physics end at some point when going up the
scales? Can't say.

Do microwaves break apart? I don't know either, lets say no. There are
experiments with polarizing magnets even for light so the components
of field seem to be there.

> Does a photon have an EM field? This depends very much on what you mean
> by "have". As a quantum object, surely a photon has a wavefunction, and
> an EM field (or mode of an EM field) seems to work well as a
> wavefunction for photons.

I suppose that photons can't be seen from aside.

> For a plane wave mode, you'll have E=0 and H=0 for a single photon,
> since there is no localisation at all - the photon can be anywhere and
> anywhen. For a wavepacket, non-zero fields (but beware of "confined", a
> Gaussian wavepacket extends to infinity in space and time).

I don't understand.  :-)
Thomas Smid - 22 Dec 2007 23:32 GMT
On 11 Dec, 02:57, il...@abv.bg wrote:
> Does a photon (free - plane wave or/and confined - a wave packet) has
> an EM field.

Yes, it has. This is for instance proven by the experimental fact that
in the photoelectric effect the photoelectrons are primarily emitted
parallel to the electric polarization vector of the light, but not
parallel to its direction of propagation (as one would expect it from
a 'billiard ball' -type particle model) (see http://prola.aps.org/abstract/PR/v37/i10/p1233_1
).

As the only way for light to interact with matter is through its EM
field, one can therefore say that it IS indeed an EM field (although
this can of course be localized to a certain degree in the form of so
called 'wave packets').

Thomas
boson boss - 25 Dec 2007 19:23 GMT
> On 11 Dec, 02:57, il...@abv.bg wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>
> Thomas

Photons are a part of the standard model as elementary particles.
Maybe there is some experiment that probes the cohesiveness of a
photon (probably some large one).

Metal rods can polarize microwaves and the demonstration is often
available at schools. Different dimensions of rods could turn the
polarizer into receiving antenna, no?
CarlB - 24 Dec 2007 15:35 GMT
On Dec 22, 3:35 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at>
wrote:
...
> But (as she says in the abstract), her position operator does
> not transform as a vector, hence everything, including the
> probability of observing a photon in some region of space,
> is orientation dependent. This makes her construction unphysical.

Perhaps a better reference for Hawkins' method is the 6-year-old
paper with Baylis:

http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0101011

Baylis and Hawkins write:

> However, the photon (as well as other massless particles of spin S > 1/2 )
> has only two linearly independent spin states, and in these states the spin
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> are independent of helicity, and there is consequently no disagreement
> as to the actual position of the photon.

In other words, the effect of a change in orientation is just a gauge
transformation and is not unphysical.

Indeed the method does not gives a position wave function
in the manner of the Schroedinger wave equation (as described
in your FAQ linked above). Such a scalar wave function could
be turned into a vector position operator that would meet your
requirements.

Instead, the method gives a position wave function that uses
a 3x3 matrix. If you rotate coordinates, you end up with a
geometric phase, sometimes called Pancharatnam phase,
or Berry phase or Berry-Pancharatnam phase.

I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more
natural object as a density matrix / density operator
density. The presence of that 3x3 matrix makes me think
this will work out naturally. Of course a density matix doesn't
transform as a vector but certainly is not "unphysical" as
density matrices are an alternative formalism of quantum
mechanics as valid as any other.

Carl Brannen
Arnold Neumaier - 04 Jan 2008 05:34 GMT
CarlB schrieb:
> On Dec 22, 3:35 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at>
> wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> Perhaps a better reference for Hawkins' method is the 6-year-old
> paper with Baylis:

Her name is Hawton, not Hawkins...

> http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0101011

I can't find her reasoning convincing and suspect that it is faulty.

> Baylis and Hawkins write:

(on p.30)

>> However, the photon (as well as other massless particles of spin S > 1/2 )
>> has only two linearly independent spin states, and in these states the spin
>> is coupled to the momentum. As a result, its position operator is a matrix
>> that does not commute with the spin.

This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position
operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand?
On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix
components.

Moreover, it is not clear what the argument is supposed to be.
The spin commutes with the momentum, but there is no clear meaning of
''in these states the spin is coupled to the momentum'', and it is even
less clear in which sense this could imply anything about a potential
position operator.

>> Different selections of the function
>> p () generally give different position operators, so that the position
>> operator is not unique and does not transform under J as a simple vector.

This means that it does not contain the physical information about
localization required of a position operator. One can construct
arbitrary objects and give them names that sound interesting, but
this does not give them physical content. The probability
of being in a nonspherical domain cannot depend on the coordinate system
used. I believe (and argued the reason in my FAQ) that this implies that
the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with
the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5.

>> However, the eigenvectors of any one of these unitarily equivalent position
>> operators gives a basis of localized states with unique eigenvalues that
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> In other words, the effect of a change in orientation is just a gauge
> transformation and is not unphysical.

Try to compute the probability of the photon being in some nonspherical
region, or the expectation of some spherically nonsymmetric function
of position. I predict that you'll find that these depend on the
gauge and hence are unphysical.

She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28)
to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully;
I'd appreciate if you could provide the missing details to check
what is going on.

> Indeed the method does not gives a position wave function
> in the manner of the Schroedinger wave equation (as described
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> geometric phase, sometimes called Pancharatnam phase,
> or Berry phase or Berry-Pancharatnam phase.

Is this phase a number or also a 3x3 matrix? If it is the latter,
which is most likely (I doidn't wade through all details of the
42 page paper) the gauge transform will change probabilities.

If the position operator has commuting components, it can be
diagonalized. The joint null space of the components of the
position operator will be d-dimensional for some d (possibly
infinite), and the wave function in this diagonal representation
will have the form psi(r) with d-dimensional psi(r). The
canonical commutation relations imply that momentum is represented
as in a usual Schroedinger wave equation.

But angular momentum apparently is not represented as in a
Schr"odinger or Pauli equation, since this would give standard
commutation relations with the position operator.

Finding d and exhibiting the nonstandard action of the angular
momentum in this position representation would give insight into
what really happens.

> I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more
> natural object as a density matrix / density operator
> density.

Do you mean because the phase disappears?
But this only happens if the phase is a pure number, which I
suspect isn't. If the density operator is gauge dependent,
as I suspect, Hawton's construction is faulty.

I also prefer treating quantum mechanics directly via density
matrices rather than via state vectors, but the mathematics
is equivalent in both cases. Seeing your quantum mechanics book draft
at http://brannenworks.com/dmaa.pdf, I guess that you should like my
papers
    A. Neumaier,
    On the foundations of thermodynamics,
    arXiv:0705.3790
and
    A. Neumaier,
    Ensembles and experiments in classical and quantum physics,
    Int. J. Mod. Phys. B 17 (2003), 2937-2980.
    quant-ph/0303047.

Arnold Neumaier
MargH - 13 Jan 2008 18:57 GMT
Our photon wave function papers seem to have become an integral part
of the "EM field of photon thread" between Dec.11 2007 and Jan.7 2008.
This is great fun, and I am happy to respond now that you have pointed
this out to me. However, it is important not to loose the forest while
looking at the trees, and I think following the tread will just be
more trees. We wrote a series of papers on photon position operators
and wave functions.

1999, Phys. Rev. A 59, 954, brute force construction of a position
operator with commuting components and transverse eigenvectors,

1999, Phys. Rev. A 59, 3223, naïve wave function paper, but wave
function is A, and it is covariant

2001, arXiv:quant-ph/0101011, generalization of the 1999 position op
from momentum space spherical polar coordinates to include all
possible transverse basis using Euler angles. There is mathematically
analogous to the magnetic monopole in coordinate space, and we got
carried away with analysis of it, but I don't think this analogy is
very important physically. This is the paper that became the subject
of discussion in January. We called the position operator a matrix
because it involves the spin-1 operator. This was in an attempt to
avoid confusion, but it appears that it caused more confusion than it
avoided.

2004, arXiv:quant-ph/0408017. Here I think we got to the heart of the
physical interpretation, based on my new found understanding of the
angular momentum of optical beams after reading the literature on this
subject. We found that It is not possible to construct a transverse
localized state without introducing a vortex structure. Thus the
localized states are not spherically symmetric, and this is why our
position operator does not transform as a vector. Viewed from another
coordinate system, the axis of the vortex may be rotated, and the
extra term in the position operator just rotates this axis. I don't
think there is anything unphysical about this.

2007, arXiv:0711.0112. The eigenvectors of our photon position
operator form a basis of transverse and longitudinal localized states.
The qed state vector |psi> can be projected onto this basis, giving a
coordinate space photon wave function. It looks like <0|A|psi> where A
is a qed operator, eg the vector potential. It is not the usual
expectation value, <psi|A|psi>.

2007, arXiv:0705.3196. This is an earlier expanded version of the
above and quite an extensive discussion of the photon wave function
literature.

I hop to respond to the Jan.7 comments later.
CarlB - 07 Jan 2008 13:00 GMT
Arnold, thank you for your detailed examination of this. Please
forgive my likely poor understanding and typing errors, and thanks
in advance for continuing to look at this.

On Jan 3, 9:36 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at>
wrote:
..
> This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position
> operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand?
> On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix
> components.

An analogy to this would be the 3-vector of 2x2 matrices known as the
Pauli spin matrices. One doesn't normally think of Pauli spin matrices
as a position operator, but I'll get back to that later in the post.

> Try to compute the probability of the photon being in some nonspherical
> region, or the expectation of some spherically nonsymmetric function
> of position. I predict that you'll find that these depend on the
> gauge and hence are unphysical.

If one can calculate probabilities consistently in spherical regions,
then it seems to me that real analysis will show that all compact
regions follow.

> She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28)
> to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully;
> I'd appreciate if you could provide the missing details to check
> what is going on.

I hope that what I will be showing applies to what they did. However,
life is short, and instead of carefully reviewing their paper to see
if what they meant is what I'm guessing, I'm just going to quickly
type the calculations to show that matrix wave functions are natural.
This turns out to be a subject that is near and dear to my heart
and one that I can type up very quickly. I'm guessing that it applies
to what they did, but I dread looking through the several dozen pages
to see if this is the case.

> > Instead, the method gives a position wave function that uses
> > a 3x3 matrix. If you rotate coordinates, you end up with a
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> which is most likely (I doidn't wade through all details of the
> 42 page paper) the gauge transform will change probabilities.

Geometric phase is a psuedoscalar, at least in the Pauli algebra.
Geometric phase shows up as exp( i k \sigma_x\sigma_y\sigma_z),
where \sigma_n are the Pauli spin matrices. So you can call it
a "number" or a 2x2 matrix, depending on what you wish to call
the unit matrix multiplied by a complex number. I don't play
much with spin-1, but I know that photons carry geometric
phase identical in formula to that of electrons and so I suspect
it is similar. From a Clifford algebra point of view, these are
all just multivectors.

> > I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more
> > natural object as a density matrix / density operator
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
>
> Arnold Neumaier

Thank you for the references! I will read them after I get done
typing up this note on how one can end up with matrix valued
wave functions, how they are interpreted, and a simple example.

GETTING MATRICES FROM STATES

While the density matrix and state vector representations are
supposed to be equivalent, a given problem can be a lot easier
in one formalism than the other. If we happen to have a solution
psi(x) to a problem in the state vector formalism, it is easy
to convert it into density matrix form:

rho(x,x') = psi^*(x) psi(x').

But it is not so clear how to do the reverse transformation.

When one converts from a state vector to a density matrix
one loses the arbitrary phase information. To do the reverse
conversion, one must choose an arbitrary phase.

In the case of a scalar wave function, one can choose a point
0' where rho(x,0') is not identically zero, and define

psi(x) = rho(x,0').

and we can multiply the above by an arbitrary phase, and
may have to adjust normalization if desired. The choice of
"0'" to designate the arbitrary point is following the
notation of Julian Schwinger, who figured out everything
I'm writing here in 1952. In his notation, the density
matrix rho(x,x') is written M(x,x') and he called this the
"measurement algebra". See his 1959 introduction paper:

http://brannenworks.com/E8/SchwingerAlgMicMeas.pdf

and the first two pages of his second paper:
http://brannenworks.com/E8/SchwingerGeomQS.pdf

It should be clear that in making the above assignment,
that is, in choosing psi(x) = rho(x,0'), what we are really
doing is convoluting rho with an arbitrarily chosen delta
function:

psi(x) = \int rho(x,x') delta(x',0') dx'

Writing the above in bra-ket form, what is going on is
something like (forgive my abuse of the notation in not
properly labeling the states):

|> = \int |x><x'| |x'><0'| dx' = |x><0'| \int (<x'|x'>) dx'
= |x><0'|

That is, we can think of what we've done as that we haven't
converted a density matrix into a state vector. What we did
instead was to rewrite a density matrix by applying a constant
density matrix to its right side. This is what Schwinger
called the "fictitious vacuum" in his second paper.

THE CASE OF SPIN

The problem gets harder when the quantum state has spin.
If it is a spin-1/2 problem, then a solution to the problem
is as follows:

Choose an arbitrary matrix valued delta function that does
not annihilate rho(x,x'). Again write:

psi(x) = \int rho(x,x') delta(x',0') dx'

but now rho, delta, (and also psi!) has been upgraded from
complex functions to matrix valued functions. The result is that
psi is a matrix valued function that has an interpretation as
a state vector.

In converting a density matrix state into state vector form
we got back the arbitrary phase by making an arbitrary choice
of what Schwinger called the "fictitious vacuum".

When Schwinger does this, he does not call it by "density
matrix" and "state vector" so it may not be obvious that
the above is a valid way to produce a spinor. A mathematical
reference might help. See Ablamowicz and Sobczyk "Lectures
on Clifford (Geometric) Algebras and Applications", page
18, section 1.6, "Square matrix spinors". In this and the
next section, Pertti Lounesto shows how ideals of a Clifford
algebra generate spinors. And he does it with the familiar
2x2 Pauli matrix notation so it is very easily understood
like this example:

EXAMPLE CALCULATION

As an example, let's work in qubits. Define the state
rho(x,x') by the matrix

[0 1] = |+x><+x|
[1 0]

We wish to find a state vector corresponding to this state
(which is spin +1/2 in the +x direction). We choose an
arbitrary "fictitious vacuum" state. The usual choice is:

[1 0] = |0><0|
[0 0]

Because the right column is zero, any time we multiply
a matrix on the right by this matrix, the resulting
product will also be zero on the right:

[a b][1 0]
[c d][0 0] =

[a 0]
[c 0].

Therefore, matrices multiplied on the right by our
choice of |0><0| have elements that are nonzero only
on their left half. That makes them isomorphic to
kets as is easily verified by considering matrix
multiplication.

THE ANNIHILATION PROBLEM

The above method of converting a density matrix into
a state vector fails if the choice of "fictitious
vacuum" happens to annihilate the state we are interested
in. For that reason, if the density matrix state is
not known in advance to us, it might makes sense to
leave it in density matrix form.

Alternatively, we can choose an orientation maybe like
Hawton and Baylis did. Now I haven't looked carefully
through their article, but I would think that if you
did this, there could be some problems with annihilation.
That would mean that you can't actually represent some
state in this manner.

But if you go back to the pure density matrix formulation,
the annihilation problem goes away. Any way, this all
gives a natural reason for keeping a representation of
a quantum object in matrix form, even when it is put
into state vector form.

Carl
Arnold Neumaier - 07 Jan 2008 15:53 GMT
CarlB schrieb:
> Arnold, thank you for your detailed examination of this. Please
> forgive my likely poor understanding and typing errors, and thanks
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
> then it seems to me that real analysis will show that all compact
> regions follow.

Only if the centers are arbitrary.
So calculate the probabilities for spherical regions with arbitrary
centers, and I predict you'll get problems.

>> She discusses the effect of the phase too superficially (on p.28)
>> to see what happens. You seem to have read the paper more carefully;
[quoted text clipped - 23 lines]
> a "number" or a 2x2 matrix, depending on what you wish to call
> the unit matrix multiplied by a complex number.

I have nothing against matrix-valued components, but she should say
so, and not call a vector of matrices a matrix.

> I don't play
> much with spin-1,

Spin 1/2 or spin 1 makes the difference between existence and
nonexistence of a position operator. Thus simple extrapolation
from spin 1/2 (which is the basis for the remainder of your mail)
is inadequate.

> but I know that photons carry geometric
> phase identical in formula to that of electrons and so I suspect
> it is similar. From a Clifford algebra point of view, these are
> all just multivectors.

Arnold Neumaier
MargH - 18 Jan 2008 20:16 GMT
On Jan 4, 12:36 am, Arnold Neumaier wrote

> This is strange terminology which she uses repeatedly. Her position
> operator is a 3x3 matrix, not a vector as one would reasonably demand?
> On closer inspection it turns out that it is a 3-vector with 3x3 matrix
> components.

I took position to imply a vector, in the same way that velocity
implies a vector. I guess I should have been more explicit and
referred to the components of the position 3-vector as matrices, but I
didn't anticipate this misinterpretation. I think the explicit
expression for the position operator, r=i I Del+kxS/|k|+ ... is clear.
In our papers r, k and S are bold to denote vectors and I is the 3x3
unit matrix.

> the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with
> the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5.

I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed.
The position operator determines the localized basis states. These
localized states have definite total angular momentum in some
specified direction. But the coefficient of these basis vectors in the
expression for the wave function can modify this to give the correct
angular momentum for any physical state. The absolute value squared of
the coefficient of the localized state is the probability density to
detect a photon at r with the z-component of angular momentum of the
localized state. This is not so different from the case of the
electron where spin + or -1/2 is relative to some specified axis.

> > I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more
> > natural object as a density matrix / density operator
> > density.

There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at
http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-density-ope
rator-formalism/


margaret.hawton@lakeheadu.ca
http://physics.lakeheadu.ca/facNstaff/hawton/hawton.html
Arnold Neumaier - 21 Jan 2008 22:46 GMT
MargH schrieb:
> On Jan 4, 12:36 am, Arnold Neumaier wrote
>
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>
> I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed.

The most important object that can be constructed from a good
position operator is a (state-dependent) probability density rho(x)
for a photon being at position x, so that
   Pr(A) = integral_{x in A} dx rho(x)
is the probability of being in the set A. Since the components of your
position operator \r (backslash for bold) commute, these components
can be diagonalized simultaneously, and the projection operator
P(A) which suppresses the eigenvalues of \r outside A is well-defined.
Thus
   Pr(A):= psi^* P(A) psi
should define the desired probability, and a corresponding probability
density rho(x).

But I believe (and argued for it in my FAQ) that this probability
density is coordinate-system dependent unless the standard commutation
relations with angular momentum hold. Since it fails for your
construction, your probability density will be coordinate-system
dependent, which is physically absurd.

Thus I deny your construction the physical relevance until you
can convince me that you get coordinate-system independent
probabilities.

It would be illuminating if you could compute the spectral
representation in which your \r acts diagonally. This would both
give expression for rho(x), which would be of independent physical
interest, and give insight into the nonstandard action of the
angular momentum on this representation.

But I predict that when you find this representation, it will be
manifestly coordinate system dependent, and does not provide a
probability desnity with the physically necessary invariance
properties.

>>> I suspect that the photon position operator will be a more
>>> natural object as a density matrix / density operator
>>> density.
>
> There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at
> http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-density-ope
rator-formalism/

??? This seems to be about consistent histories, not about photon
positions...

Arnold Neumaier
Richard Saam - 15 Feb 2008 20:47 GMT
> MargH schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 63 lines]
>
> Arnold Neumaier

Perhaps a suggestion is relevant to the physical meaning of this discussion
in the context of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation CMBR

Is there a mass density associated with photons or not?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background_radiation
Quote:
The big bang theory suggests that the cosmic microwave background fills
all of observable space, and that most of the radiation energy in the
universe is in the cosmic microwave background, which makes up a
fraction of roughly 5E-5 of the total density of the universe.
UnQuote

The fraction 5E-5  is obtained in the context of Black Body Theory. CMBR
is the most perfect Black Body in nature, so this is appropriate.

Black Body radiation (power/area/time) = stefan's constant x T^4 T= 2.7
K for CMBR.

The mass density of the Black Body is computed as: CMBR Black Body
radiation (mass/volume) = (4/c^3) x stefan's constant x T^4

This mass density is roughly 5E-5 of the universe critical density
~1E-29 g/cm^3 or ~5E-34 g/cc

So in terms of this calculation derived from the very foundation of
quantum mechanics the photonic oscillators within the Black Body have
mass density.

This is consistent in a fundamental manner with margaret hawton's
presentation.

The factor T^4 is very powerful.

At high black body temperatures (T) significant photonic mass densities
(~T^4) can be achieved.

Richard D. Saam
Arnold Neumaier - 18 Feb 2008 21:57 GMT
Richard Saam schrieb:

> Perhaps a suggestion is relevant to the physical meaning of this discussion
> in the context of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation CMBR
>
> Is there a mass density associated with photons or not?

The rest mass density is zero, but the energy-momentum tensor is
nontrivial. Thus photons couple to gravity as well.

> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background_radiation
> Quote:
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> This is consistent in a fundamental manner with margaret hawton's
> presentation.

I don't see the connection between mass density and position operators.
Could you please explain what you mean?

Arnold Neumaier
sr - 15 Feb 2008 20:47 GMT
This thread seems to have gone quiet, but without a satisfying
resolution. I'd like to request further discussion about MargH's
position operator, and Arnold Neumaier's objections.

Summarizing....

Arnold Neumaier wrote:

>>>  [...objections to MargH's position operator...]
>>>
>>> [...] the position vector must satisfy the standard commutation rules (3) with
>>>  the angular momentum, which is violated, as she says explicitly on p.5. [...]

MargH said:

>> I don't agree that the standard commutation relations must be obeyed.

I don't understand your reasons behind this opinion. It seems natural to
me that the position vector should satisfy the standard commutation
rules with the angular momentum, so I was surprised that you think
differently. Could you elaborate on your reasons, please?

>> There is a very nice blog that discusses our position operator at
>>http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/01/14/consistent-histories-and-...

> ??? This seems to be about consistent histories, not about photon
> positions...

There is discussion about the Hawton position operator further down on
that webpage. (Note that the rather puzzling statement therein about
"our probabilities will end up not as real numbers, but instead as real
multiples of matrices" must be read carefully in the context of the
preceding consistent histories stuff to understand what is meant.)
Arnold Neumaier - 18 Feb 2008 15:29 GMT
sr schrieb:
> This thread seems to have gone quiet, but without a satisfying
> resolution. I'd like to request further discussion about MargH's
[quoted text clipped - 26 lines]
> There is discussion about the Hawton position operator further down on
> that webpage.

Ah, I had given up up about halfway...

The statement there about ''Newton's and Wigner's insistence on a
complete rotational manifold'' is misguided. Actuall, Newton and Wigner
only treated the massive case, where one indeed has the full set of
spin states. The massless case is treated in passing at the end of
their paper, where they mention that the conclusion then are different
for spin > 1/2 (and, reading between the lines, just _because_ of
the transversality of the photon.)

> (Note that the rather puzzling statement therein about
> "our probabilities will end up not as real numbers, but instead as real
> multiples of matrices" must be read carefully in the context of the
> preceding consistent histories stuff to understand what is meant.)

I have no idea which meaning could be assigned to matrix-valued
probabilities; neither is it clear to me why Hawton's approach
should yield such probabilities; the blog does not seem to give details.

The trace is discarded without good reasons in the paragraph before
the heading ''Hawton's Photon Position Operator'',

In the formula for Pr(H) a few paragraphs before, the trace
is already missing after each equal sign. But the trace is necessary
(and it is indeed mentioned in the English context).
With the trace, the probabilities discussed there become
ordinary numbers; without the trace, the formulas simply become wrong:
The third equality would not be correct since, as the context states,
it uses the fact that  tr AB = tr BA.

Thus if the probabilities for being in some region of space
are indeed matrices rather than numbers then an interpretation
of the resulting probability matrix calculus - that would make the
formalism meaningful - is missing.

On the other hand, if the probabilities for being in some region
of space are ordinary numbers (as I think they should be)
then their independence of the Cartesian coordinate system used
is in doubt. If these probabilities change under a rotation
of the coordinate system, they cannot be physical.

I fear the latter is the case...

Arnold
CarlB - 20 Feb 2008 07:09 GMT
> I have no idea which meaning could be assigned to matrix-valued
> probabilities; neither is it clear to me why Hawton's approach
> should yield such probabilities; the blog does not seem to give details.
...
> On the other hand, if the probabilities for being in some region
> of space are ordinary numbers (as I think they should be)

The post is rather clear on this. Rather than take traces, a
mathematically equivalent method of defining probabilities
for pure quantum states is to take them as the real multiples
of primitive idempotents (states). By doing this, one keeps
one's formalism entirely in matrix form. Probabilities are not
matrices, but ratios of matrices.

Perhaps this isn't sufficiently explicit. Working in a finite
Hilbert space, let B be a primitive idempotent. Then
BB = B and trace(B) = 1.

Let M be some matrix. Then BMB is also a matrix, and by
the properties of primitive idempotents, it will be a complex
multiple of B. Therefore, assign <M>_B to be this complex
multiple. This allows one to define quantum averages without
need of specifying "trace". Instead, trace is built into the
definition of "primitive idempotent".

> In the formula for Pr(H) a few paragraphs before, the trace
> is already missing after each equal sign. But the trace is necessary
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> The third equality would not be correct since, as the context states,
> it uses the fact that  tr AB = tr BA.

You don't have to define probabilties with "trace" in order to
have the equivalent of tr(AB) = tr(BA). However, since
the alternative definition of probabilities gives the same
numbers as the trace, one can move back and forth between
the definitions however one wishes. Similarly, when one
is working in the density matrix formalism, it is frequently
very convenient to take results well known in spinor
formalism and use them.

ABA is a complex (real for Hermitian) multiple of A,
and BAB is a complex multiple of B. The statement
that tr(AB) = tr(BA) amounts to the observation that
the "complex multiples" involved (i.e. ABA / A and
BAB / B), are the same.

To prove this, without reference to trace is easy and
I will leave it as an exercise for the reader with one
hint: It might be useful to prove that the matrix product
of two primitive idempotents AB is either zero, or a
complex multiple of a (not necessarily Hermitian)
primitive idempotent. What do you suppose that
complex multiple would be?

Somewhere in here I should mention that density matrices
are particularly handy in QFT in that virtual particles are
density matrices. When one writes the formalism in density
matrix form, one unifies the formalism for the virtual and real
states.

I think the most useful applications of density matrices is
in deep bound states. In analyzing these, one wants to
have the initial and final states both be bound states.

The usual QFT makes the initial and final states free, but
for a deeply bound state they should instead be virtual states.
In other words, one needs to analyze deeply bound states by
ignoring the state vectors that one usually sandwhiches the
virtual states between, but instead one looks at the algebra
of the virtual states among themselves.

To do all this, it helps to look at things from a point of view
where the virtual particles are at the foundation and the real
particles are just approximations of virtual particles. And
that is why density matrices are useful to understand.

On the other hand, if you are dealing in the usual formalism
where the state vectors are fundamental, then it makes perfect
sense to define average values by <a| M | a>. And that naturally
turns into traces in the density matrix formalism. From the spinor
point of view, defining probabilities as ratios of matrices is rather
contrived, but from a density matrix point of view, the trace is
also a rather contrived object.

As is usual in QM, the different formalisms give the same
result. It's just easier in one formalism or another to set
up the problem.
CarlB - 23 Feb 2008 15:16 GMT
On the subject of extracting information from quantum states
which are thought of as operators (density matrices) rather
than vectors from a Hilbert space, I've added a blog post
covering what is variously called "Berry phase" or
"Pancharatnam-Berry phase" or "quantum phase":

http://carlbrannen.wordpress.com/2008/02/23/Berry

Berry phase is the phase that arises when a quantum
state is sent through a sequence of states back to its
original state. It is possible that it will pick up an overall phase
change when this happens. In general, one must go through
a sequence of at least two other states for this to happen
as it is due to non commutativity.

Density matrices of qubits are particularly convenient for
this sort of calculation since the arbitrary complex phase
of the spinor is eliminated from them. The remaining phase
information is Berry phase and nothing else.

In making the calculations, it is very natural to use the
same formalism that confused Neumaier in the last few
posts. That is, while previously probabilities (real numbers)
were given as real multiples of (primitive idempotent or
quantum state) matrices, in Berry phase calculations,
it is natural to obtain complex numbers as the complex
multiples of primitive idempotents.

All these things work because if P is a primitive idempotent,
and s and t are complex numbers, one has (sP) (tP) = (st P)
and (sP + tP) = (s+t)P, etc., so in considering the complex
multiples of a primitive idempotent (or ideal), one has a
perfectly adequate copy of the complex numbers.

The kind of calculations one does in this manner are
described in the above blog post, with the example
calculation being the Berry phase of the Pauli
algebra (spin -1/2).

But this sort of phase calculation is much more
general than that. While the Pauli algebra has a
natural imaginary unit given by the product of the
three Pauli spin matrices, a more general Clifford
algebra may have no natural imaginary unit.

For example, in the complex Dirac algebra with
signature -+++, the x and y vectors (which are
usually written as gamma_1 and gamma_2 but
I will write as x and y to simplify symbols and
to promote the observation that these are analogs
of the Pauli algebra sigma matrices) satisfy
the following relations:

x x = y y = (ixy) (ixy) = 1,
x y = -y x,
x (ixy) = -(ixy) x,
y (ixy) = -(ixy) y.

These are identical to the usual relations of
the Pauli algebra:
x x = y y = z z = 1,
x y = - y x,
x z = - z x,
y z = - z y,
with the replacement z == ixy.

This is generically true for any anticommuting bilinears
taken from the Dirac algebra; such a pair of elements,
when their signatures are corrected with possible
multiplication by i so that they square to +1, give a
representation of the Pauli algebra.

Therefore, the Berry phase calculations done in the Pauli
algebra can be taken also for quantum states rotated around
the "Bloch sphere" defined by two such anticommuting Clifford
algebra elements.

And in all these cases, computations are most easily made
when one is computing with respect to the complex multiples
of matrices rather than dealing with complex numbers per se.

So the notation looks like Phase( ABCA ) where A, B, C, and
A are matrices. To compute the "phase of a matrix", one
notes that if A is a primitive idempotent, a product that begins
and ends with A, such as AMA, is a complex multiple of A.
In the usual formalism, this would be tr(AM) = tr (AMA). So
for those who are easily confused, the notation Phase(AMA)
can be thought of as an abbreviation for Phase( tr (AMA) ).
The same applies to probabilities.
 
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