Natural Science Forum / Physics / Research / December 2007

I flipped through two papers (gr-qc/0005126, gr-qc/9710007) and found
out that they calculated the black hole entropy by counting the number
of states of which the area lie between A-l_p^2 and A+l_p^2 where l_p
is the planck length. I wonder why this is not between A-l_p^2/2 and A
+l_p^2. Is there any good argument?

Thanks in advance

Youngsub