Hamiltonian vs. Energy
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Pmb - 11 Mar 2008 15:34 GMT I was wondering if anyone knows of systems for which the Hamiltonian is not equal to the total energy? This is an interesting problem in analytic mechanics (e.g. Lagrangian and Hamiltonian dynamics) but is rarely, if ever, mentioned in forums and newsgroups. I'd love to see a large set of examples for which this is true. I'd like to get an intuitive feeling for when the Hamiltonian equals the energy. I'm also interested in the Hamiltonian for a object sliding on plane with only gravity and friction acting on the body. Seems to me that there is a Lagrangian equation for this but that the associated Lagrangian does not account for the energy lost to friction and as such Hamiltonian does not account for this. I'm also very interested in whether there are quantum mechanical systems for which the Hamiltonian is not the energy. All input, references, thoughts and comments are welcome. There is an example of this in Classical Mechanics - Third Ed., by Goldstein, Safko and Poole page 345-346. Thank you.
Best wishes
Pete
torre@cc.usu.edu - 11 Mar 2008 18:17 GMT > I was wondering if anyone knows of systems for which the Hamiltonian is not > equal to the total energy? One way to generate examples of this is to take a Hamiltonian system for which the Hamiltonian is the total energy and perform a time-dependent canonical transformation. The new Hamiltonian is the old Hamiltonian (energy) expressed in the new variables plus an extra term coming from the time derivative of the generating function for the transformation.
charlie torre
Pmb - 12 Mar 2008 05:53 GMT ><torre@cc.usu.edu> wrote in message >news:15163ee4-165b-4476-98d8-76860e76c626@i12g2000prf.googlegroups.com... [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > >charlie torre Thank you. That was exactly what Goldtein et al did in their book. In such cases what does this mean for the eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian operator in quantum mechanical systems?
Best wishes
Pete
Mehul - 12 Mar 2008 17:02 GMT What about the Hamiltonian of a charged particle in an EM field. In this case the Hamiltonian is not p^2/2m + q\phi but rather the momentum enters via minimal coupling: (p - qA/c)^2/2m + q\phi. (Note: A & \phi are in general functions of space and time). Is this new Hamiltonian the energy of the system or is it just an object that correctly reproduces Newton's laws ?
-Mehul
Arnold Neumaier - 11 Mar 2008 18:17 GMT Pmb schrieb:
> I was wondering if anyone knows of systems for which the Hamiltonian is not > equal to the total energy? This is the case in any diffeomorphism invariant theory; then the Hamiltonian vanishes identically. Note that any theory can be rewritten in diffeomorphism invariant form by introducing an additional quantity that specifies how the time depends on the arbitrary parameter t in the action.
> This is an interesting problem in analytic > mechanics (e.g. Lagrangian and Hamiltonian dynamics) but is rarely, if ever, > mentioned in forums and newsgroups. I'd love to see a large set of examples > for which this is true. I'd like to get an intuitive feeling for when the > Hamiltonian equals the energy. I'm also interested in the Hamiltonian for a > object sliding on plane with only gravity and friction acting on the body. If you have friction, the problem is no longer conservative, and the standard Lagrangian or Hamiltonian approach is no longer applicable.
The correct quantization of dissipative systems is in terms of Lindblad master equations, or, in more mathematical terms, completely positive semigroups.
One can rewrite dissipative systems in a way that they look conservative, at the expense of destroying the physical interpretation of the Hamiltonian. There are quite a number of publications in this direction. But I haven't seen any treatment where this pseudo-conservative reformulation produced anything of value beyond what was already put into the description.
Arnold Neumaier
Pmb - 12 Mar 2008 05:53 GMT > Pmb schrieb: >> I was wondering if anyone knows of systems for which the Hamiltonian is >> not equal to the total energy? > > This is the case in any diffeomorphism invariant theory; ... I don't understand. Since a "diffeomorphism" is a map between manifolds which is differentiable and has a differentiable inverse then I don't see what the term "diffeomorphism invariant theory" means. Please explain.
> ..then the Hamiltonian vanishes identically. Note that any theory can be > rewritten > in diffeomorphism invariant form by introducing an additional quantity > that specifies how the time depends on the arbitrary parameter t in the > action. Since is of no interest to me since it is totally unrelated to what I'm seeking to learn, what is the point of this statemen?
>> This is an interesting problem in analytic mechanics (e.g. Lagrangian and >> Hamiltonian dynamics) but is rarely, if ever, mentioned in forums and [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > If you have friction, the problem is no longer conservative, and the > standard Lagrangian or Hamiltonian approach is no longer applicable. Yeah. I had a feeling. I was thinking of something in Goldstein where the Lagrangian is expressed in terms of monogenic forces only and all polygentic forces are on the right side of Lagrange's equation (e.g. chapter 1.5 in Goldstein). Thanks.
Thank you
Best wishes
Pete
Arnold Neumaier - 13 Mar 2008 15:47 GMT Pmb schrieb:
>> Pmb schrieb: >>> I was wondering if anyone knows of systems for which the Hamiltonian is [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > which is differentiable and has a differentiable inverse then I don't see > what the term "diffeomorphism invariant theory" means. Please explain. In mechanics, time is a point in a 1-dimensional manifold, and diffeomorphisms are just smooth reparameterizations of the time.
For any Lagrangian of the form L(q,qdot,t) := U(q(t)) qdot(t), where q is an n-dimensional column vector and U an n-dimensionaler row vector, the action S = integral L(q,qdot,t) dt is diffeomorphism invariant. As a consequence, the Noether energy (the formal Hamiltonian constructed in the transition from a Lagrangian to a Hamiltonian formulation) vanishes identically and has no physical content. For one can bring an arbitrary Hamiltonian system xdot=H_p(p,x) , pdot=-H_x(p,x), where H is the physically relevant energy, into the above form by putting q^T = (x^T,p^T,s), U(q) = (p^T,0^T,-H(p,x)).
For a careful discussion see Section 4.3 of PJ Olver, Applications of Lie groups to differential equations, Springer, New York 1993.
>> ..then the Hamiltonian vanishes identically. Note that any theory can be >> rewritten [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > Since is of no interest to me since it is totally unrelated to what I'm > seeking to learn, what is the point of this statement? It shows that every conservative theory can be rewritten in a form where the Hamiltonian is not equal to the total energy.
Arnold Neumaier
Daryl McCullough - 14 Mar 2008 21:20 GMT Arnold Neumaier says...
>It shows that every conservative theory can be rewritten in a form where >the Hamiltonian is not equal to the total energy. Is there a standard definition of what "energy" is when it is not equal to the Hamiltonian?
-- Daryl McCullough Ithaca, NY
Pmb - 16 Mar 2008 18:24 GMT > Arnold Neumaier says... > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > Is there a standard definition of what "energy" is when it is not > equal to the Hamiltonian? Energy = Rest energy + Kinetic Energy + Potential Energy
Other forms such as thermal energy, EM energy etc are particular versions of the above.
In GR the energy of a particle is similar hut not generally expressible as such. The energy of a particle moving through a gravitational field is the time component of the energy-momentum 1-form.
Pete
Arnold Neumaier - 16 Mar 2008 18:24 GMT Daryl McCullough schrieb:
> Arnold Neumaier says... > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > Is there a standard definition of what "energy" is when it is not > equal to the Hamiltonian? Naming is a matter of usefulness, not of the underlying mathematics.
The usual recipe is to regard that as the energy which can be identified as such either in special cases of the system under consideration, or in more fundamental descriptions from which the system considered is an approximation.
Arnold Neumaier
Rock Brentwood - 15 Mar 2008 00:19 GMT > > This is the case in any diffeomorphism invariant theory; ... > > I don't understand. Since a "diffeomorphism" is a map between manifolds > which is differentiable and has a differentiable inverse then I don't see > what the term "diffeomorphism invariant theory" means. Please explain. The action S = integral_M L transforms under a diffeomorphism f: M -> M to integral_M f^*(L), where f^* is the pull back on the Lagrangian 4- form. Generally this means that f^*(L) = L, though one may allow f^*(L) = L + d(phi) since d(phi) will integrate to 0 if M is compact with no boundary. Hedges have to be made if M is not compact or has a boundary (e.g. when considering a diffeomorphism invariant theory of a submanifold M of space-time).
The Hamiltonian for such a theory will always be homogeneous to the first degreei in the conjugate momenta. As a result, when the equations of motion are substituted into the Hamiltonian it is 0. That excludes it being the total energy (unless the total energy is 0 too).
> > ..then the Hamiltonian vanishes identically. Note that any theory can be > > rewritten [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > > Pete Martin Ouwehand - 14 Mar 2008 02:36 GMT Dans l'article <47D6BBAD.5050807@univie.ac.at>, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neumaier@univie.ac.at> écrit:
] If you have friction, the problem is no longer conservative, and the ] standard Lagrangian or Hamiltonian approach is no longer applicable.
however, some differential equations describing systems with friction may be derived from a Lagrangian:
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics.research/msg/776122c79d50dbf4 http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math.research/msg/ac310de224c826d8
Actually, I think that any one dimensional second order differential equation
q'' = f(q', q, t)
may be derived from a Lagrangian (if I remember well, this is proved in Bolza's "Calculus of Variations") or rather its flow, the Lagrange equation sometime having the form:
g(q', q, t) * q'' = g(q', q, t) * f(q', q, t)
 Signature | ~~~~~~~~ Martin Ouwehand ~ Swiss Federal Institute of Technology ~ Lausanne __|___________ Email/PGP: http://personnes.epfl.ch/martin.ouwehand ____________ The fact that we physicists worry over discrepancies at the level of parts per billion in the muon's magnetic moment is our unique glory [Frank Wilczek]
Arnold Neumaier - 14 Mar 2008 21:20 GMT Martin Ouwehand schrieb:
> Dans l'article <47D6BBAD.5050807@univie.ac.at>, > Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neumaier@univie.ac.at> écrit: [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > http://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics.research/msg/776122c79d50dbf4 > http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math.research/msg/ac310de224c826d8 Yes, but only with a physically meaningless Hamiltonian.
Indeed, _any_ system of ordinary differential equations can be brought into an artificial Lagrangian form, by first rewriting it in first order form F(q,qdot)=0 doubling the degrees of freedom by introducing conjugate variables p, and then considering the Lagrangian L(p,q)= p^T F(q,qdot).
> Actually, I think that any one dimensional second order differential > equation [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > g(q', q, t) * q'' = g(q', q, t) * f(q', q, t) Unfortunately, the Hamiltonian in such a formulation has nothing to do with the physical energy E = (m q'^2 + k q^2)/2
The same holds for various other representations for the damped harmonic oscillator found in the literature.
Lagrangians for the damped harmonic oscillator go back to H. Bateman, Phys. Rev. 38, 815-819 (1931); the treatise P.M. Morse and H. Feshbach, Methods of Theoretical Physics MacGraw-Hill, Boston 1953 discusses the procedure in Chapter 3 in terms of 'mirror images' = additional dynamical variables needed to absorb the missing energy, and remarks on p 313: ''The introduction of the mirror image ... is probably too artificial a prcedure to expect to obtain much of physical significance from it.'' And indeed, the book doesn't make use of it anywhere.
Having a formal Lagrangian or Hamiltonian is no virtue in itself. In particular, for a _quantum_ system, the Hamiltonian _must_ be the energy. Playing around with alternative Lagrangians and Hamiltonians may be amusing, but does not produce relevant physics.
Since dissipative equations (like the diffusion equation or the damped harmonic oscillator) describe open systems (where energy is lost to an unspecified environment), they cannot be described by a Schroedinger equation.
Classically, dissipative systems are described by stochastic differential equations (and their equivalent deterministic Fokker-Planck equations) or master equations; the diffusion equation is the particular case of a Fokker-Planck equation for Brownian motion.
Quantum mechanically, dissipative systems are described by stochastic Schroedinger equations or, corresponding to the Fokker-Planck level, by quantum Liouville equations with Lindblad terms. This gives correct physics in a dissipative environment.
Chris H. Fleming - 15 Mar 2008 19:13 GMT On Mar 11, 1:17 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> wrote:
> Pmb schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > Lindblad master equations, or, in more mathematical terms, completely > positive semigroups. The Lagrangian and Hamiltonian approach is most certainly still applicable. Only one must model the dissipative environment and then trace out it's degrees of freedom from the master equation. When that is done, Lindblad terms usually only arise in some kind of bandwidth limit where the system energies are much less than the environment energies (a high temperature reservoir for instance). More generally the result is non-Markovian and the dissipative corrections to the master equation are intricately dependent upon the system. Lindblad operators are special in that they can be used with most any system, but they are by no means exhaustive and never realistic at low temperature.
Energy conservation, unitarity, time reversal symmetry, Poincare recurrence, ... are lost in the large environment limit, just as you would expect from (non-equilibrium) thermodynamics. Positivity is retained.
> One can rewrite dissipative systems in a way that they look > conservative, at the expense of destroying the physical interpretation > of the Hamiltonian. There are quite a number of publications in > this direction. But I haven't seen any treatment where this > pseudo-conservative reformulation produced anything of value beyond > what was already put into the description. I agree.
Arnold Neumaier - 16 Mar 2008 18:24 GMT Chris H. Fleming schrieb:
> On Mar 11, 1:17 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> > wrote:
>> The correct quantization of dissipative systems is in terms of >> Lindblad master equations, or, in more mathematical terms, completely [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > where the system energies are much less than the environment energies > (a high temperature reservoir for instance). If you model the dissipaticve environment explicitly, you have a bigger conservative system, not a dissipative system. Of course, the conservative system is Hamiltonian, but it does not describe the dissipative system alone. Already a simple damped harmonic oscillator becomes a huge and unwieldy dynamical system which is no longer equivalent to the damped harmonic oscillator, but includes unwanted memory terms.
Wen you contract it to the degrees of freedoms of the original system, you get an integro-differential equation with memory, which is no longer described by a Hamiltonian or Lagrangian framework.
If you then remove the memory by employing the Markov approximation you get again a differential equation, which defines the Lindblad (or, classicallally, the Focker-Planck) dynamics. Aghain, this is no longer described by a Hamiltonian or Lagrangian framework.
>> One can rewrite dissipative systems in a way that they look >> conservative, at the expense of destroying the physical interpretation >> of the Hamiltonian. There are quite a number of publications in >> this direction. But I haven't seen any treatment where this >> pseudo-conservative reformulation produced anything of value beyond >> what was already put into the description. Arnold Neumaier
Chris H. Fleming - 18 Mar 2008 00:21 GMT On Mar 16, 1:24 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> wrote:
> Chris H. Fleming schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > conservative system is Hamiltonian, but it does not describe the > dissipative system alone. Maybe you misunderstood what I meant by "dissipative environment".
Of course the entire system + environment is conservative. But that doesn't mean there is no dissipation in the system. Open systems are not necessarily conservative.
In the limit of a large environment, you get true dissipation in the system. The Poincare recurrence time becomes infinite and energy that is lost to the environment never comes back. It is a reservoir.
By "dissipative environment" I merely mean an environment which causes dissipation in the system.
> Already a simple damped harmonic oscillator > becomes a huge and unwieldy dynamical system which is no longer > equivalent to the damped harmonic oscillator, but includes unwanted > memory terms. That would be the HPZ master equation and it is equivalent to a parametrically damped oscillator with diffusive noise. I wouldn't consider it unwieldy considering that fairly general (finite temperature, finite coupling) solutions have been found.
And I don't know what you mean by *unwanted* memory terms. I suppose you mean unwanted in that they make the maths difficult. Physically they are certainly wanted. They are absolutely necessary for low temperature physics.
> Wen you contract it to the degrees of freedoms of the original system, > you get an integro-differential equation with memory, which is no longer [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > classicallally, the Focker-Planck) dynamics. Aghain, this is no longer > described by a Hamiltonian or Lagrangian framework. Correct, but it was *derived* from a Lagrangian. That is critical to getting correct noise and dissipation. The subtlety is lost in the Markov limit where you get local dissipation and white noise, which is no different from the old classical models.
The correct quantization of dissipative systems starts with a Lagrangian and ends with a master equation (or Langevin equation, or Stochastic Schroedinger equation, ...).
Arnold Neumaier - 18 Mar 2008 21:33 GMT Chris H. Fleming schrieb:
> On Mar 16, 1:24 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> > wrote: [quoted text clipped - 30 lines] > By "dissipative environment" I merely mean an environment which causes > dissipation in the system. And by a dissipative system, I mean a system in whose description only the variables of the system, and not that of the environment appear.
>> Already a simple damped harmonic oscillator >> becomes a huge and unwieldy dynamical system which is no longer [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > they are certainly wanted. They are absolutely necessary for low > temperature physics. There are cases where one wants to model the memory. But then it is no longer a damped harmonic oscillator. The latter is universally agreed to be described by a second order differential equation for a single function, and has no memory. Its analysis is very simple, and compared to that any more detailed description is unwieldy.
>> Wen you contract it to the degrees of freedoms of the original system, >> you get an integro-differential equation with memory, which is no longer [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > Markov limit where you get local dissipation and white noise, which is > no different from the old classical models.
> The correct quantization of dissipative systems starts with a > Lagrangian and ends with a master equation (or Langevin equation, or > Stochastic Schroedinger equation, ...). Perhaps in theory, but not in practice. Many quantum optical systems are directly modeled on the Lindblad level, where the terms have an understandable and experimentally verifiable meaning independent of any underlying more microscopic model.
An important recent example is that of photons on demand, M. Keller, B Lange, K Hayasaka, W Lange and H Walther, A calcium ion in a cavity as a controlled single-photon source, New Journal of Physics 6 (2004), 95. There is no trace of a Lagrangian in the modeling.
The situation is similar to that in fluid dynamics. In theory, the Navier-Stokes equations (which are dissipative) should be derivable from a Lagrangian. Indeed, such derivations have been given, but only for very simple model problems such as an ideal gas. However, there is no microscopic derivation of the Navier-Stokes equations in the practically interesting case of water at room temperature...
Arnold Neumaier
Chris H. Fleming - 21 Mar 2008 01:55 GMT On Mar 18, 4:33 pm, Arnold Neumaier <Arnold.Neuma...@univie.ac.at> wrote:
> Chris H. Fleming schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 35 lines] > And by a dissipative system, I mean a system in whose description only > the variables of the system, and not that of the environment appear. So though you start with a conservative system + environment, eventually you trace out the environment and do end up with a truly dissipative system when the environment is a large reservoir.
> >> Already a simple damped harmonic oscillator > >> becomes a huge and unwieldy dynamical system which is no longer [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > function, and has no memory. Its analysis is very simple, and compared > to that any more detailed description is unwieldy. I can't claim to completely understand what you are saying, but it doesn't seem correct however I interpret it.
For a single oscillator coupled to a thermal reservoir of oscillators, one gets most generally a nonlocally damped oscillator with colored noise. It is also equivalent to parametric damped oscillator with colored noise. (The Langevin equation will look nonlocal with noise while the master equation will look parametric with diffusion. The homogeneous (no noise/diffusion) solution matrices are related algebraically)
There is a limit in which the damping is local (parametric goes to simple) and there is a limit in which the noise is white. Both of these things I would classify as "memory" and they are two different limits. One can (perturbatively) have a simple damped oscillator, but still with colored noise. Lindblad terms cannot describe this.
In either case, I don't think it is fair to say that it is unwieldy given that it has been done. Certainly the calculation is challenging to do non-perturbatively when one has both nonlocal dissipation and colored noise. Such non-perturbative calculations are not yet in the literature but will be soon... followed by more if there is any demand.
> >> Wen you contract it to the degrees of freedoms of the original system, > >> you get an integro-differential equation with memory, which is no longer [quoted text clipped - 30 lines] > microscopic derivation of the Navier-Stokes equations in the practically > interesting case of water at room temperature... It is completely dependent upon the regime of interest. For high temperature environments, Lindblad terms are perfectly acceptable. And quantum mechanically speaking high temperature isn't necessarily that high in the conventional sense. But at low temperature such terms are either completely unphysical or a mixed limit of sorts... and still probably unphysical.
As far as modeling, one isn't "required" to invoke a Lagrangian to insert Lindblad terms into the master equation because they are system independent. You only have to make sure you are in the correct regime. Then they can automatically be said to come from a high temperature (or some other relatively short memory) reservoir which has an associated Lagrangian. It would not be difficult to construct a model environment to reproduce the master equation in your reference and then link the phenomenological coefficients to microscopic causes. That sort of thing is well known and there is no point in doing it.
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