Query about intrinsic verus orbital angular momentum
|
|
Thread rating:  |
Jay R. Yablon - 07 Apr 2008 21:44 GMT Referring to the link below:
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/qm/lectures/node40.html
it is stated as follows in about the middle of the page:
"Spin angular momentum clearly has many properties in common with orbital angular momentum. However, there is one vitally important difference. Spin angular momentum operators cannot be expressed in terms of position and momentum operators, like in Eqs. (297)-(299), since this identification depends on an analogy with classical mechanics, and the concept of spin is purely quantum mechanical: i.e., it has no analogy in classical physics. Consequently, the restriction that the quantum number of the overall angular momentum must take integer values is lifted for spin angular momentum, since this restriction (found in Sects. 5.3 and 5.4) depends on Eqs. (297)-(299). In other words, the quantum number is allowed to take half-integer values."
Digging a little deeper, when it is stated that "the concept of spin is purely quantum mechanical: i.e., it has no analogy in classical physics," is this because the electron (or whatever fermion is under consideration) is regarded to be a "point" particle with no "radius" for the spin? In other words, does this restriction apply because of the "point particle" notion or would this apply even if the electron had a finite (albeit exceedingly tiny, e.g. Planck scale) spatial expanse which permitted a "rotation"?
Related to this, how do we "know" that intrinsic spin does not in fact involve rotation on an exceptionally small scale beyond the direct reach of our experimentation? Is this just supposition?
Related to this, is the orbital angular momentum based on the l and m quantum numbers for the electron considered to entail a small-scale rotation of a sort that does not apply for the spin, or is this as equally "quantum mechanical" as the intrinsic spin?
Finally, because each of orbital and spin angular momentum, together with their conserved sum j = l + s, only have definite eigenvalues with respect to a single chosen (z) axis of quantization, and the only other good quantum number comes from the Casimir operator j(j+1), the angular momenta (orbital and spin) around other than the z axis are uncertain. Does this not place l and s on the same footing quantum mechanically?
Any clarification is appreciated.
Thanks,
Jay. ____________________________ Jay R. Yablon Email: jyablon@nycap.rr.com co-moderator: sci.physics.foundations Weblog: http://jayryablon.wordpress.com/ Web Site: http://home.nycap.rr.com/jry/FermionMass.htm
Jordi Burguet Castell - 10 Apr 2008 15:03 GMT > Digging a little deeper, when it is stated that "the concept of spin is > purely quantum mechanical: i.e., it has no analogy in classical [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > finite (albeit exceedingly tiny, e.g. Planck scale) spatial expanse > which permitted a "rotation"? It has a lot to do with the electron beeing a "point particle". Experimentally, the electron radius is known to be r < 10^-16 m (the limits coming from electron-neutrino scattering, I think to remember, but I would be glad if anyone points to the correct number and experiment).
Now, if the electron spin was due to the mass m of "electron-material" rotating around its axis (in the same way as the Earth's spin is due to the addition of all the mass chunks rotating around), then its moment of inertia would be
I ~ m r^2 (with a factor of 2/5 or so to have an equality, depending on the distribution of the electron mass)
and the spin
S = I w ~ m r^2 w for an angular velocity w = v/r where v is the velocity of a point in the surface of the electron. But this velocity has a surprise:
v = w r ~ S/(m r^2) r = S/(m r)
If we now put the values we know for the electron spin (S=1/2 hbar), mass (m=9e-31 kg) and experimentally maximal radius (r=1e-16 m), we get v ~ 5e11 m/s... much faster than the speed of light!
I saw this argument in David Griffiths' very nice "Introduction to Elementary Particles". My memory may have distorted it though :-)
> Related to this, how do we "know" that intrinsic spin does not in fact > involve rotation on an exceptionally small scale beyond the direct reach > of our experimentation? Is this just supposition? It is just not consistent with the classical analysis above.
> Related to this, is the orbital angular momentum based on the l and m > quantum numbers for the electron considered to entail a small-scale > rotation of a sort that does not apply for the spin, or is this as > equally "quantum mechanical" as the intrinsic spin? Orbital angular momentum is related to rotation, even if it is not small. It is just that quantum-mechanically it turns out to be discrete. Spin also, and it contributes to the total angular momentum, but it doesn't mean it is due to a rotation.
> Finally, because each of orbital and spin angular momentum, together > with their conserved sum j = l + s, only have definite eigenvalues with > respect to a single chosen (z) axis of quantization, and the only other > good quantum number comes from the Casimir operator j(j+1), the angular > momenta (orbital and spin) around other than the z axis are uncertain. > Does this not place l and s on the same footing quantum mechanically? They are both angular momenta, so in that sense they are related (quantum mechanics enters specially in the fact that the electron spin has no analogous in classical physics). The stuff about j=l+s and only having a definite total and z projection angular momentum is circumstantial (and not quite true, those quantities form a base, but any state can be in a superposition of that kind of states and thus have no definite total and/or z projection angular momentum).
I hope this clarifies things a little bit! jordi
J. J. Lodder - 10 Apr 2008 21:58 GMT > Referring to the link below: > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > 5.4) depends on Eqs. (297)-(299). In other words, the quantum number is > allowed to take half-integer values." All this is just nonsense: quantum numbers have no meaning in classical physics anyway.
> Digging a little deeper, when it is stated that "the concept of spin is > purely quantum mechanical: i.e., it has no analogy in classical [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > finite (albeit exceedingly tiny, e.g. Planck scale) spatial expanse > which permitted a "rotation"? Clasically speaking point particles can have angular momentum. It is just a matter of taking limits in the appropriate way.
> Related to this, how do we "know" that intrinsic spin does not in fact > involve rotation on an exceptionally small scale beyond the direct reach > of our experimentation? Is this just supposition? On the contrary, we do know that electron spin does involve rotation, from angular momentum conservation. For example the Einstein-De Haas effect: inverting magnetization direction of a magnet causes a macroscopic rotation of it. Even more directly: firing a polarized electron beam into a macroscopic target will cause it to rotate.
Best,
Jan
news.individual.net - 11 Apr 2008 01:06 GMT >> Referring to the link below: >> [quoted text clipped - 58 lines] > > Jan Thanks Jan et al.,
So, would it be off-based to believe that classically speaking, there really is no such thing as "spin"? That is, to believe that spin is just a composite of orbital angular momenta for individual infinitesimal mass elements about an origin. I.e., one can only have a true "spin" which is not orbital, if one has a true physical "point" that also coincides with the rotational origin.
If one is applying classical analogies to quantum phenomena, this would suggest that there can also really be no quantum mechanical spin, unless the electron is truly a "point" particle. If it is merely very tiny, such as on the order of the Planck length, then even its spin really has to be orbital on the Planck scale.
Your thoughts?
Jay.
Gerard Westendorp - 11 Apr 2008 17:22 GMT [..]
> So, would it be off-based to believe that classically speaking, there > really is no such thing as "spin"? That is, to believe that spin is > just a composite of orbital angular momenta for individual infinitesimal > mass elements about an origin. I.e., one can only have a true "spin" > which is not orbital, if one has a true physical "point" that also > coincides with the rotational origin. There are some interesting old threads on this (2001, "spin, what is it?")
http://groups.google.nl/group/sci.physics.research/browse_thread/thread/28ab1450 3887bc22/324f236055392f6d?hl=nl&lnk=st&q=angular+momentum+westendorp#324f2360553 92f6d
A few quotes:
> What I see in my head is a circulating flow of energy and momentum density > around the borders of the particle's quantum-mechanical wave function. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > Hans C. Ohanian, "What is spin?" AJP 54 (6), 500-505 (1986) So Ohanian shows that you *do* actually get spin half if you integrate angular momentum density over a Dirac wave packet!
One way you might think spin 1/2 cannot arise from a wave function, is de Broglie's formula,
momentum = h/ wavelength
So if you have a circular wave at distance R , the angluar momentum (L) is
L = h R / (2 pi R) = h_bar
In other words, the quantization comes from the fact that circular waves must have integer wave numbers in the tangential direction.
But for a Dirac spinor field, de Broglie's formula is a bit more complex. Also, the solution of the Dirac equation in a central potential is more complex: The spinor field is not locally aligned with the total spin.
The puzzling thing is, outof quite complex calculation, you "magically" get the spin half from the integral of angular momentum density. It would be nice if we could see this in a more intuitive way
Gerard
Jay R. Yablon - 12 Apr 2008 23:09 GMT > [..] > [quoted text clipped - 40 lines] > In other words, the quantization comes from the fact that circular > waves must have integer wave numbers in the tangential direction. Hi Gerard,
First, I'll note that I first learned general relativity from Dr. Ohanian at RPI in the early 1980s. Thanks for pointing out this work, which Dr. Thomas Love at USC had earlier brought to my attention and which I cited in a draft paper on this topic at http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/intrinsic-spin-30.pdf (comments always welcome). Hans DeVries also commented on your post here, over at sci.physics.foundatons, see http://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics.foundations/browse_frm/thread/c6fce6b 9b281dd3c/21da7a5375d8c5cc#21da7a5375d8c5cc.
Now, the above L = h R / (2 pi R) = h_bar is based on tangential integer wave numbers over a 2pi rotation. But what if we go to orientation / entanglement -- i.e., "version," as laid out in Misner / Wheeler / Thorne in Gravitation, section 41.5. Then we obtain a double covering, and your equation above turns into:
L = h R / (4 pi R) = (1/2) h_bar
> But for a Dirac spinor field, de Broglie's formula is a bit more > complex. Also, the solution of the Dirac equation in a central [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > "magically" get the spin half from the integral of angular momentum > density. It would be nice if we could see this in a more intuitive way Might the above be the "more intuitive" way to which you refer? Cross reference to eqs. (5.3) and (5.4) in the file linked above.
Thanks,
Jay.
> Gerard sr - 12 Apr 2008 14:30 GMT Jay Yablon wrote in part:
> So, would it be off-based to believe that classically speaking, there > really is no such thing as "spin"? That is, to believe that spin is > just a composite of orbital angular momenta for individual infinitesimal > mass elements about an origin. I.e., one can only have a true "spin" > which is not orbital, if one has a true physical "point" that also > coincides with the rotational origin. Have a careful read of Box 5.6 in Misner, Thorne & Wheeler's "Gravitation", which defines angular momentum, and then explains its decomposition into orbital and intrinsic parts. This is classical, of course, but it's an essential piece of information needed when trying to understand this stuff.
Separately, regarding another posting about spin-1/2 emerging from Dirac wave packets, that's less surprising if one recalls that the integral and half-integral values for total spin are a direct consequence of angular momentum commutation relations, represented unitarily, i.e., in a Hilbert space.
torre@cc.usu.edu - 12 Apr 2008 14:30 GMT > Related to this, how do we "know" that intrinsic spin does not in fact > involve rotation on an exceptionally small scale beyond the direct reach > of our experimentation? =A0Is this just supposition? Ultimately, one should address these issues from the point of view of quantum field theory.
But, I think a decisive argument - strictly in the context of non-relativistic quantum mechanics - is simply that one can show angular momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only integer quantum numbers. The electron, of course has half-integer quantum numbers; its spin angular momentum must therefore be interpreted in some other way.
charlie
Jay R. Yablon - 13 Apr 2008 19:49 GMT >> Related to this, how do we "know" that intrinsic spin does not in >> fact [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > charlie Hi Charlie,
Thank you for the post. What you have done, effectively, is asserted as an answer, the main query I am posing. You say "one can show angular momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only integer quantum numbers." My question simply, is, HOW does one show this? Especially, how does one *exclude* spin 1/2 from also being of the rxp type?
As a counterpoint, take a look at Hans Devries' Figure 1.5 at http://physics-quest.org/Book_Chapter_EM_basic.pdf. This seems to suggest that one can also consider half-integer spins to also be of the rxp type. You thoughts?
Thanks,
Jay
dan@frogfly.org - 14 Apr 2008 15:53 GMT > You say "one can show angular > momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only > integer quantum numbers." My question simply, is, HOW does one show > this? Especially, how does one *exclude* spin 1/2 from also being of > the rxp type? Isn't it just as simple as finding eigenvalues of L = r x p operator? eigenvalues of L^2 are l(l+1) h-bar^2, with l an integer. There are no other solutions to the e-value problem. Thus half-integer spin can't come from an r x p operator.
Is there a problem with this line of argument?
Dan
Jay R. Yablon - 14 Apr 2008 20:40 GMT On Apr 13, 12:49 pm, "Jay R. Yablon" <jyab...@nycap.rr.com> wrote:
> You say "one can show angular > momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only > integer quantum numbers." My question simply, is, HOW does one show > this? Especially, how does one *exclude* spin 1/2 from also being of > the rxp type? Isn't it just as simple as finding eigenvalues of L = r x p operator? eigenvalues of L^2 are l(l+1) h-bar^2, with l an integer. There are no other solutions to the e-value problem. Thus half-integer spin can't come from an r x p operator.
Is there a problem with this line of argument?
Dan
[Yablon] Not at all, Dan:
Finally, somebody has answered my question directly. Let me rephrase what I think you mean:
We generate a rotation through angle psi about the z-axis by acting on a wavefunction phi via with the z-axis rotation generator m, according to:
exp[i psi m] phi.
Because psi has a period of 2 pi, the eigenvalues of m must be an integer, not a half integer. Am I correct so far?
If so, then my next question is this: Go to section 41.5 of Misner, Wheeler, Thorne, where they discuss orientation / entanglement. There, a rotation through 4pi is needed to restore not only orientation, but the entanglement version. So, if psi needs a period of 4pi rather than 2pi to restore the entanglement relationship with the surrounding environment, then the Eigenvalues of m can be half integers, and can be generated -- not by the "rotation group" -- but by what one might call the "entanglement / rotation" group. This would make it possible, I believe, to create half-integer spin as well, from an rxp operator, with the understanding that entanglement counts. This would appear to pave the way to place the fundamental representation SO(1,3) of the Lorentz group, which uses the SU(2) generators, onto an rxp operator footing as well.
Your further thoughts.
Thanks,
Jay.
Hans de Vries - 15 Apr 2008 05:56 GMT > Finally, somebody has answered my question directly. Let me rephrase > what I think you mean: [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > > Thanks, Hi Jay,
A free Dirac electron has a phase which is equal throughout its rest frame, so there is no such varying phase around the wave-function.
Now, the effect which I describe in the first chapter in my book is straightly from Sakurai's treatment of the Dirac equation in his book: Advanced QM, chapter 3.5 "Gordon decomposition"
http://physics-quest.org/Book_Chapter_EM_basic.pdf section 1.9
For the analogy with magnetized media, Sakurai refers to Jackson. The referred section has become section 5.8 in my 1999 copy, equation 5.79.
Regards, Hans
Jay R. Yablon - 18 Apr 2008 18:52 GMT On Apr 13, 12:49 pm, "Jay R. Yablon" <jyab...@nycap.rr.com> wrote:
> You say "one can show angular > momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only > integer quantum numbers." My question simply, is, HOW does one show > this? Especially, how does one *exclude* spin 1/2 from also being of > the rxp type? Isn't it just as simple as finding eigenvalues of L = r x p operator? eigenvalues of L^2 are l(l+1) h-bar^2, with l an integer. There are no other solutions to the e-value problem. Thus half-integer spin can't come from an r x p operator.
Is there a problem with this line of argument?
Dan
[Yablon]
What I replied with before is actually half of the answer. The other half is as follows:
As to the issue of whether rxp can be applied to intrinsic spin, I call your attention to Ohanian's article "What is spin?," linked as http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-what-is-spin.pdf. Go to equation (16) and the discussion following. With $ = integral, and G=momentum density (see (10) through (13)), equation (16) can be schematically rewritten as:
J = $ [(r x G)_orbital + (r x G)_spin] d^3 x
Then a few steps later after converting the triple cross product, the second term turns directly into the expectation value of the sigma operator, and by (19), we have spin 1/2.
Via the (r x G)_spin term in (16), it is clear that both spin and orbital angular momentum *can* be treated with an rxp type operator, contrary to what is often asserted. That is *exactly* what Ohanian does here.
If one then applies entanglement so that one has to cycle through 4pi rather than 2pi, the distinction between orbital and spin angular momentum in terms of group theory (fundamental versus non-fundamental Lorentz group representations of SO(1,3)) can, it appears, be eliminated, and each can be treated via and rxp analog to classical theory.
BTW, I mentioned earlier that Ohanian taught me general relativity while he was an adjunct professor over at nearby RPI (and also taught at Union College here in Schenectady where I first met him) in the 1980s. With Wheeler's passing, I should also note if memory serves, that Ohanian is a student of Wheeler's, and should be added to Wheeler's genealogies.
Jay.
torre@cc.usu.edu - 14 Apr 2008 20:40 GMT > You say "one can show angular > momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only > integer quantum numbers." My question simply, is, HOW does one show > this? Especially, how does one *exclude* spin 1/2 from also being of > the rxp type? This comes from trying to define position, momentum, and orbital angular momentum as self-adjoint operators.
A nice discussion of some of the issues is in
E. Merzbacher "Single-valuedness of Wave Functions" American Journal of Physics, Vol. 30, pgs. 237-247 (1962).
charlie torre
Matej Pavsic - 15 Apr 2008 18:35 GMT >> You say "one can show angular >> momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > "Single-valuedness of Wave Functions" > American Journal of Physics, Vol. 30, pgs. 237-247 (1962). Other relevant papers are:
C. Van Winter, Annals of Physics 47, 232 (1968). S.S. Sanikov, Nucl. Phys. 87, 834 (1967).
For an old discussion see W. Pauli, Helv. Phys. Acta 12, 147 (1939).
Van Winter provides a very detailed discussion. He chooses a set of spherical harmonics with half integer values of l, and shows that orbital angular momentum operator is not self-adjoint with respect to such a set of functions. In the case of l = 1/2, his set of functions YW_{lm} (up to a normalization constant which I omit here) is:
YW_{1/2,1/2} = sin^{1/2} \theta e^{i phi/2} YW_{1/2,-1/2} = sin^{1/2} \theta e^{-i phi/2} (1)
But there is a problem with the above set of functions, because the second function does not come from the first by the application of the "ladder" operator L_. Namely, L_ YW_{1/2,1/2} is not equal to YW_{1/2,-1/2}. Instead, we have that L_ YW_{1/2,1/2} is proportional to cos \theta sin^{-1/2} \theta e^{-i phi/2}.
Other authors, including E. Merzbacher, also use the above set of functions (and its generalization for higher l and m values), and consequently they do not obtain self adjoint orbital angular momentum operator.
In this respect, it is more natural to take functions
Y_{1/2,1/2} = (i/\pi) sin^{1/2} \theta e^{i phi/2} Y_{1/2,-1/2} = -(i/\pi) cos \theta sin^{-1/2} \theta e^{-i phi/2}
for which it holds L_ Y_{1/2,1/2} = Y_{1/2,-1/2}. We also have:
L+ Y_{1/2,1/2} = 0 L+ Y_{1/2,-1/2} = Y_{1/2,1/2}
But there is a catch: The action on L_ on the function with lowest m value, i.e., m = -1/2 in our example, we find
L_ Y_{1/2,-1/2} = Y_{1/2,-3/2}
The result is not zero, as it should be. And yet, if we act on the latter state with the raising operator L+, we obtain zero:
L+ Y_{1/2,-3/2} = 0.
The last result is crucial. It has for a consequence, that the operators L_x, L_y, L_z are self adjoint, provided that one employs a suitable renormalization of the inner products between certain states. Then everything appears to be OK, and the spherical harmonics with half-integer l-values do form an irreducible representation of the 3-dimensional rotation group.
All this has been discussed in papers D. Pandres, J. Math. Phys. 6, 1098 (1965), D. Pandres and D.A. Jacobson, J. Math. Phys. 9, 1401 (1968),
I followed Pandres' approach in a paper of mine
"Rigid particle and its spin revisited" Published in Found.Phys.37:40-79,2007. http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0412324 in which I tried to clarify some other aspects as well, and also used a complementary functions Z_{lm} in a superposition with Y_{lm}, in order to obtain "good behavior" under rotations, parity and time reversal. Pandres and I do not claim that the ordinary orbital angular momentum can have half integer l-values.
A reason of why to reject Y_{lm} and Z_{lm} with half-integer l-values in the description of orbital angular momentum was given correctly by Dirac in his textbook on QM. In the free case, a complete set of solutions to the Schr\" odinger equation consists of plane waves, which are single valued. The latter property has to be preserved when we use another representation, i.e., one with spherical harmonics. Hence, such Schr\" odinger basis for spinor representation of the 3-dimensional rotation group cannot refer to the ordinary configuration space of positions, but to an internal space associated with every point of the ordinary space.
Double valued spherical harmonics are admissible, if they do not refer to the ordinary configuration space in which the usual quantum mechanical orbital angular momentum is defined, but if they refer to an internal space in which a spin angular momentum is defined. An example of such an internal space is the space of velocities, associated with the so called {\it rigid particle} whose action contains the square of the extrinsic curvature of a particle's world line.
`Fermion' spherical harmonics are discussed also in papers:
G. Hunter, P. Ecimovic, I.M Walker, D. Beamish, S. Donev, M. Kowalski, A. Arslan and S. Heck, J. Phys. A: Math. Gen. 32 795 (1999); G. Hunter and M. Emami- Razavi, \Properties of Fermion Spherical Harmonics", [arXiv:quant-ph/0507006].
Jay R. Yablon - 18 Apr 2008 18:52 GMT >>> You say "one can show angular >>> momentum of the r x p type (associated with rotation) can have only [quoted text clipped - 122 lines] > Razavi, \Properties of Fermion Spherical Harmonics", > [arXiv:quant-ph/0507006]. Dear Dr. Pavsic:
Looking at your article, you seem to be one of the few folks who is seeking an rxp (rotation) view of intrinsic spin 1/2.
It seems that Ohanian's equation (16) in "What is spin?" (linked at http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-what-is-spin.pdf) provides direct support for using rxp for Dirac particles (see a pending post at sci.physics.research which will hopefully be up soon).
If my former professor Ohanian in can do a classical rxP analysis for intrinsic spin and end up with (1/2) h-bar, then there has to be a quantum mechanical rxP operator for the group theory associated with Ohanian's spin analysis.
I took a stab at that problem in the file below. Straightforward calculation, just over one page. Still a draft, but please let me know what you think.
http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-and-spin-operators.pdf
Best,
Jay.
Matej Pavsic - 21 Apr 2008 14:42 GMT > Dear Dr. Pavsic: > > Looking at your article, you seem to be one of the few folks who is > seeking an rxp (rotation) view of intrinsic spin 1/2. I am building on an old papers [D. Pandres J. Mathem. Phys. 6 (1965) 1098] in which the Schroedinger basis for spinor representation of the 3-dimensional rotation group is considered. Here r and p are not the coordinates and momentum operators in our usual 3-space, but in an 'internal space'.
> It seems that Ohanian's equation (16) in "What is spin?" (linked at > http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-what-is-spin.pdf) > provides direct support for using rxp for Dirac particles (see a pending > post at sci.physics.research which will hopefully be up soon). In that paper r and p are in usual space, so this is different from what I consider.
> If my former professor Ohanian in can do a classical rxP analysis for > intrinsic spin and end up with (1/2) h-bar, then there has to be a [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.com/2008/04/ohanian-and-spin-operators.pdf Also in your pages above your r and p refer to our usual space.
|
|
|