babaluyee wrote on Fri, 18 Apr 2008 17:52:42 +0000:
> In their original paper the authors derive a phase between the
> acceleration of the source and the advanced wave at the source coming
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> other particles. What is this difference between the treatment of the
> advanced and retarded wave motivated by?
Because otherwise the theory would predict unobserved phenomena. E.g.
instead the total force
F_ret + R
with R the damping force you would obtain
F_adv - R
> Why is one considered
> elementary and the other not?
/Ad hoc/ Their theory does not explain that. They argued explanation
would be second law thermodynamics.
> Isn't this a time asymmetric assumption?
Yes.
> If the answer to the last question is yes then why do we need to blame
> the time asymmetric dominance of diverging waves over converging waves
> on asymmetric initial conditions why not also blame it on this
> asymmetric treatment of advanced and retarded waves?
Both approaches are blamed at this point.

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