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Natural Science Forum / Physics / General Physics / June 2007



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Trek - 28 Jun 2007 14:56 GMT
was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
Sam Wormley - 28 Jun 2007 15:11 GMT
> was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> or it existed "before" Big Bang ?

  Perhaps you are referring to Pythagoras
    http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PythagoreanTheorem.html
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pythagorean_theorem

  No Center
    http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/nocenter.html
    http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/infpoint.html

  Also see Ned Wright's Cosmology Tutorial
    http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/cosmolog.htm
    http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/cosmology_faq.html

  WMAP: Foundations of the Big Bang theory
    http://map.gsfc.nasa.gov/m_uni.html

  WMAP: Tests of Big Bang Cosmology
   http://map.gsfc.nasa.gov/m_uni/uni_101bbtest.html
malibu - 28 Jun 2007 15:25 GMT
> > was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> > or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
[quoted text clipped - 16 lines]
>    WMAP: Tests of Big Bang Cosmology
>    http://map.gsfc.nasa.gov/m_uni/uni_101bbtest.html

f.ck, Man.

Those are some crappy links!!

Read 1984.  The same kind of double-speak is used there.

Sam.  YOU ARE INCAPABLE OF LOGICAL THOUGHT.

John
Uncle Al - 28 Jun 2007 17:36 GMT
> was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> or it existed "before" Big Bang ?

Mathematics is not empirical.  That is why it is not a science.  Your
question is meaningless.

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Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

Mitchell Jones - 28 Jun 2007 19:16 GMT
> > was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> > or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
>
> Mathematics is not empirical.  That is why it is not a science.  Your
> question is meaningless.

***{Was it meaningless before the Big Bang? :-) --MJ}***

*****************************************************************
If I seem to be ignoring you, consider the possibility
that you are in my killfile. --MJ
Uncle Al - 28 Jun 2007 21:33 GMT
> > > was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> > > or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> ***{Was it meaningless before the Big Bang? :-) --MJ}***

Idiot.

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Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
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http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

Mitchell Jones - 30 Jun 2007 18:54 GMT
> > > > was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
> > > > or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> Idiot.

***{Infant.

Note that Trek put quotes around "before." Clearly, he wants to discuss
whether that notion always applies. Your response him took the form of
an unsupported assertion, and, as such, was of no more significance than
the sound of the wind blowing.

My response to him is that real events always arise out of the
rearrangement of material that existed prior to the event, and, thus,
that the notion of "before" is always meaningful, where real events are
concerned. That means deductive logic, of which mathematics is a subset,
always applied in the past, and will always apply in the future.

For example, if a carton contains a dozen eggs and you remove three,
nine remain. Such a statement captures a timeless, eternal truth.

Of course, nine won't remain if an extra egg appears out of nothing for
every egg that you remove. In that case, you could remove limitless
numbers of eggs from a carton containing a dozen, and 12 would still
remain. Similarly, if when you remove an egg, another egg vanishes into
nothing somewhere else in the carton, then when you remove three from a
carton containing a dozen, only 6 will remain.

What this means is that the applicability of deductive reasoning to the
real world does not merely rest on the premises that are "given" within
the specific deductive system, but also on notions of a more fundamental
nature which arise out of philosophy. To be very specific, if the
principle of continuity is true--i.e., if no thing may come into
existence out of nothing or vanish into nothing--then deductive
reasoning captures truths that are timeless and eternal; and if the
principle of continuity isn't true, then we have no basis for believing
in the existence of anything, including "God," the external world, the
self, the "Big Bang," or anything else.

--Mitchell Jones}***

*****************************************************************
If I seem to be ignoring you, consider the possibility
that you are in my killfile. --MJ
The Ghost In The Machine - 29 Jun 2007 04:45 GMT
In sci.physics, Mitchell Jones
<mjones@21cenlogic.com>
wrote
on Thu, 28 Jun 2007 13:16:09 -0500
<mjones-DDA574.13160928062007@news.thundernews.com>:

>> > was Pitagoras theorem created in Big Bang?
>> > or it existed "before" Big Bang ?
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> ***{Was it meaningless before the Big Bang? :-) --MJ}***

That verges on the philosphical, especially since humans
did not exist until well after the Big Bang, and were not
capable of the math commonly used to analyze the Universe
until well after their initial creation, which is some
millions of years back according to most scientists, after
billions of years had already passed.

One could hypothesize that little green men observed the
Big Bang and had mathematical abilities well beyond ours,
but that is only a hypothesis, with little or no data
behind it (unless recent SETI results show otherwise,
but I for one don't know) -- especially since observing
the Big Bang from within the Universe would be well-nigh
impossible, and observing it from outside the Universe
raises some very troubling questions, not the least of
how the little men came to be, and came to be green, and
ventured outside -- or perhaps *into* -- our Universe.

> *****************************************************************
> If I seem to be ignoring you, consider the possibility
> that you are in my killfile. --MJ

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BioFreak - 28 Jun 2007 21:46 GMT
> Mathematics is not empirical.  That is why it is not a science.  Your
> question is meaningless.

But is math Kosher?

Signature

    "sad sar rA kolAh ast va sad kur rA asA."

Androcles - 29 Jun 2007 03:43 GMT
: > Mathematics is not empirical.  That is why it is not a science.  Your
: > question is meaningless.
:
: But is math Kosher?

No, it's Halal. Historically ragheads were much better at math than Jews.

In non-Arabic-speaking countries, the term is most commonly used in the
narrower context of just Muslim dietary laws, especially where meat and
poultry are concerned, though it can be used for the more general meaning,
as well. This dichotomy of usage is similar to the Hebrew term "kosher".
 
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