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Natural Science Forum / Physics / General Physics / August 2007



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General Covariance vs Lorentz Invariance

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Rex - 24 Aug 2007 12:08 GMT
Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
where the relativity principle in Special Relativity is extended
to accelerated motion. But I found out it was not. So what
is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity? Some
believe "general relativity" is a misnomer and it should
be called "Einstein's theory of gravitation". For years I
thought General Relativity being "General" means
lorentz invariance is extended to acceleration motion
with Special Relativity being "Special" in that it works in
limited case such as inertial reference frame (with constant
velocity) but it wasn't correct. Lorentz Invariance in GR is
only in the infinitesimal sense. So what actually is the
"relativity" principle in General Relativity?

Hope someone can shed some light into all this. Tnx

Rex.
Androcles - 24 Aug 2007 12:16 GMT
: Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
: the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
:
: Rex.

Actually the "relativity" principle in General Relativity is... bullshit.
Or, in words of one syllable -- bull sh.t.

'we establish by definition that the "time" required by
light to travel from A to B equals the "time" it requires
to travel from B to A' because I SAY SO and you have to
agree because I'm the great genius, STOOOPID, don't you
dare question it. -- Albert Einstein,
who in 1895 failed an examination that would have allowed
him to study for a diploma as an electrical engineer at
the Eidgenössische Technische Hochschule in Zurich
(couldn't even pass the SATs).
Ben Rudiak-Gould - 24 Aug 2007 16:20 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
> where the relativity principle in Special Relativity is extended
> to accelerated motion. But I found out it was not.

Yes, they definitely have different natures. Lorentz invariance is a
constraint on physical laws: Newtonian mechanics doesn't satisfy it, for
example. General covariance is just a way of writing down physical laws, and
not a constraint. You can make a general relativistic version of any Lorentz
invariant theory, though it helps if it has a conserved four-vector quantity
in it.

> So what is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity?

It's something like this. Special relativity says that you're only allowed
to write down laws of physics that are Lorentz invariant, i.e. you have to
be able to write them in terms of variables x,y,z,t such that they're also
true of any x',y',z',t' which are related to x,y,z,t by a Lorentz
transformation. This is philosophically problematical, as even Newton
realized, because the coordinates themselves can only be given meaning
through the dynamics. To put it another way, Newton's law of inertia is
circular: it says objects move uniformly in the absence of external forces,
but the only way to measure force is by the deviation of objects from
uniform motion. In practice, the first law seems to be saying something
meaningful and important about the world, but it's difficult to pin down
what that is.

You can make this philosophical problem mathematically precise by writing
down your laws of physics in a form which is unchanged under any (smooth)
coodinate reparameterization at all. This is possible for any physical laws,
for purely mathematical reasons. You do it by introducing what's effectively
a new field (the metric tensor field) which transforms in a certain way
under coordinate changes and whose job is to compensate for whatever havoc
you've wreaked by the change of coordinates. The field has ten independent
components, and you get a bunch of new terms in your equations involving
those components. You also get 20 new partial differential equations which
express the fact that the rewritten theory still satisfies global Lorentz
invariance. These all have the form

 (nasty second-order partial differentials of metric field components) = 0.

So now we have a clearer idea of what it means for a theory to be Lorentz
invariant: instead of talking about coordinates, we can talk about these
coordinate-independent constraints on the metric field.

General relativity is what you get when you drop these 20 constraints. The
right hand sides of ten of the equations, no longer constrained to be zero,
describe a conserved four-vector quantity, the gravitational charge, which
is identified with the four-momentum of the original special relativistic
theory. The other ten right hand sides describe the free gravitational
field, including gravitational waves.

The interesting thing is that all of the forces of the Standard Model can be
derived by the same general argument: you start with a global symmetry,
extend it to an arbitrary local transformation, write down what it means to
still satisfy the global symmetry, and then replace the right hand sides
with charges and field components. So it's extremely tempting to suppose
that the Standard Model forces have a geometric interpretation like gravity
does. But no one has managed to make this work, except for the classical
electromagnetic field in Kaluza-Klein theory.

Warning: I don't really understand any of this as well as it may sound like
I do.

-- Ben
Uncle Al - 24 Aug 2007 17:44 GMT
[snip good stuff]

> You can make this philosophical problem mathematically precise by writing
> down your laws of physics in a form which is unchanged under any (smooth)
> coordinate reparameterization at all. This is possible for any physical laws,
> for purely mathematical reasons.
[snip rest of good stuff]

Therein resides the fun part!  SMOOTH.  Covariance with respect to
reflection in space and time is not required by the Poincaré group of
Special Relativity or the Einstein group of General Relativity.  An
irreducibly discrete coordinate transformation can violate General
Relativity without contradiction.  [Euclid does not work on the geoid
(large scale navigation or land surveying) for there are no parallel
lines (lines being great circles) on a sphere.]

Required are chemically identical opposite geometric parity mass
distributions whose parity emergence scale is vastly smaller than the
observation scale.  Consider a parity pair of millimeter- to
centimeter-radiused solid spheres carved from opposite parity single
crystals.  The positions of their atomic nuclei in space (fractional
nanometers, 10^7 length ratio) are absolutely incommensurable and
outside the Einstein group.  Their statics (geometric parity
destruction through melting, solution, vaporization) and dynamics
(vacuum free fall) will be anomalous.

http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

We're going to look, Christmas 2007.  The worst it can do is null.
No, wait - the worst it can do is *not* null!

Signature

Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2

Androcles - 24 Aug 2007 17:51 GMT
: [snip good stuff]
:
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
: > for purely mathematical reasons.
: [snip rest of good stuff]

[snip rest of sh.t]

You can make this philosophical bullcrap mathematically precise by writing
down your laws of physics in a form which is Newtonian. This is possible
for any physical laws, for purely mathematical reasons.
OR you can assume and then run into paradox.

Signature

'we establish by definition that the "time" required by
light to travel from A to B equals the "time" it requires
to travel from B to A' because I SAY SO and you have to
agree because I'm the great genius, STOOOPID, don't you
dare question it. -- Albert Einstein,
who in 1895 failed an examination that would have allowed
him to study for a diploma as an electrical engineer at
the Eidgenössische Technische Hochschule in Zurich
(couldn't even pass the SATs).

"Counterfactual assumptions yield nonsense.

If such a thing were actually observed, reliably and reproducibly, then
relativity would immediately need a major overhaul if not a complete
replacement." -- Tom Roberts.

Ken S. Tucker - 24 Aug 2007 23:06 GMT
> > Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 61 lines]
>
> -- Ben

Super post Ben, LOL at "havoc you've wreaked"
I'm still giggling, sounds like a big fart or
something.
(Also enjoyed Uncle Als, and T.Roberts).

My shot on Relativity is captured in a very
brief statement
"the vanishing of absolute motion",
defined in Eq.(6) here,
http://physics.trak4.com/modern-spacetime.pdf

I'm a student of the application of the
Einstein Field Equation's, and respect it's
classical application to gravitation, but
that's an application of using General
Covariance that is derived from the General
Principles of Relativity, that imports
assumptions that may not be necessary,
and possibly - as it appears - confusing,
even to skilled GRist's.

The more fundamental a theory like GR
becomes, the more it embraces, and soon
it inhabits all of physics, mysteriously
lurking, rather like a strict teacher who
will smack your knuckes if you don't dot
or "i's" or cross or "t's", hard to ignore.
Regards
Ken S. Tucker
Bill Hobba - 26 Aug 2007 06:06 GMT
>> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
>> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> something meaningful and important about the world, but it's difficult to
> pin down what that is.

I am with Lev Landau who defined inertial in terms of a frames symmetry.  To
me physics has honed in for quirte a while now on what its foundations are -
symmetry.

> You can make this philosophical problem mathematically precise by writing
> down your laws of physics in a form which is unchanged under any (smooth)
[quoted text clipped - 33 lines]
> Warning: I don't really understand any of this as well as it may sound
> like I do.

No one does - which is why it is best done in math.

BTW - excellent post.

Thanks
Bill

> -- Ben
Edward Green - 31 Aug 2007 01:58 GMT
> > So what is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity?
>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> meaningful and important about the world, but it's difficult to pin down
> what that is.

I don't think it's all that circular, although it has the quality of
many constructions that it could be prefaced by the claim "it's
possible to find a self-consistent set of objects, such that...".

We might for example resort to operational definitions, and, starting
with our old friends, clocks and meter sticks, piece together the
sticks in a frame with clocks at the intersections, creating our
famous and often carelessly invoked "reference frame".  If we are
really obsessive we may worry about operational meanings of straight
lines and right angles.  But I feel we can overcome this objection,
tediously, with (operational) geometric constructions.

Anyway, piecing together our physical sticks and clocks this way in
suitable regions of space we may find we have an "inertial frame": one
in which the first law obtains, and is _not_ circular, because it is a
statement about possible experiment. It only seems circular if we jump
directly to our abstract "coordinate system", which hides its physical
roots.

I reserve the right to digest the remainder of your, as always,
thoughtful and erudite post.
Tom Roberts - 24 Aug 2007 22:36 GMT
> I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
> where the relativity principle in Special Relativity is extended
> to accelerated motion. But I found out it was not. So what
> is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity?

There isn't one, really. SR had the Principle of Relativity, which
(loosely) states that one can write the laws of physics relative to any
inertial frame and they will be the same equations. In GR the analogous
postulate is general covariance, which replaces "inertial frame" with
"arbitrary coordinates" (a seemingly minor change with profound
implications).

> Some
> believe "general relativity" is a misnomer and it should
> be called "Einstein's theory of gravitation".

It is actually rather more than just gravitation. It is about geometry.

The difference between SR and GR is best described geometrically: GR
describes any geometry, as long as it is consistent with the
energy-momentum density of the world being modeled. SR describes only a
geometry that has the 10 Killing vectors of the Lorentz group; this
requires a flat manifold with the topology of R^4.

Ben Rudiak-Gould wrote:
>(nasty second-order partial differentials of metric field components) = 0.

Those turn out to be just the statement that the 10 Killing vectors
exist; equivalently: that the manifold is flat. Note that these
equations do not constrain the topology, while I believe the requirement
that all 10 Killing vectors exist does constrain it.

> General relativity is what you get when you drop these 20
> constraints. [...]

It's a bit more complicated that that -- one must do so in a way that
retains both general covariance and the equivalence principle. With
knowledge of tensor analysis the first is easy to accommodate; the
latter is quite restrictive, and is actually the determining factor that
gets you GR and not some other theory.

    Well, one gets a generalization of GR, with potentially
    higher orders of derivatives of the metric (i.e. other
    terms in the Lagrangian).

> The interesting thing is that all of the forces of the Standard Model can be derived by the same general argument: you start with a global symmetry, extend it to an arbitrary local transformation, write down what it means to still satisfy the global symmetry, and then replace the right hand sides with charges and field components.

This is known as a "gauge field theory".

> Warning: I don't really understand any of this as well as it may sound like I do.

Ditto. I understand what I wrote above, but not all the implications....

Tom Roberts
Rex - 25 Aug 2007 00:10 GMT
> > I thought that General Covariance is
> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> "arbitrary coordinates" (a seemingly minor change with profound
> implications).

I have been reading this paper

http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
(General covariance and the foundations of general relativity:
eight decades of dispute)

for a week and re-reading it two or three times. I got it at
the bottom of wikipedia entry on "General Covariance"
At the conclusion of the paper there is these words:

"The second viewpoint has been developed by Anderson and
is based on his distinction between absolute and dynamical
objects. His "principle of general invariance" entails that
a spacetime theory can have no no-trivial absolute objects.
Anderson argues that the principle is a relativity principle,
since it is a symmetry principle, and that it is what Einstein
really intended with his principle of general covariance. In
this approach, general relativity is able to extend the symmetry
group of special relativity from the Lorentz group to the general
group. This extension depends on the metric being a dynamical
object, which is no longer required to be preserved by
the symmetry transformations of the theory's relativity
principle".

Do you agree or not agree with the above, and why?

Rex

> > Some
> > believe "general relativity" is a misnomer and it should
[quoted text clipped - 38 lines]
>
> Tom Roberts
Ken S. Tucker - 25 Aug 2007 21:53 GMT
> > > I thought that General Covariance is
> > > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 79 lines]
>
> > Tom Roberts

I like piezoelectric crystals.
Start with one that is surveyed to be
perfectly square in free-fall, aka an
inertial frame.
Next, subject the crystal to either of
these 3 effects,
1) gravitational-field
2) acceleration
3) an electric field

and you'll find the crystal becomes a
parallelogram.

In the cases (1) and (2) these are thought
to create the voltage across the crystal,
by mechanic stress, to form the parallelogram,
and thus create the voltage.
OTOH, a voltage (3) applied across the crystal
will create an exactly equivalent geometry to
the crystal...a parallelogram, with all the
geometry's and voltages the same, except we
swapped the gravitational or acceleration
field effects with an electric field.

>From that example, I find General Covariance
easily able to unify gravity and electricity,
mind you, the math is challenging.
Best Regards
Ken S. Tucker
Bill Hobba - 26 Aug 2007 06:30 GMT
>> > I thought that General Covariance is
>> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 34 lines]
>
> Do you agree or not agree with the above, and why?

Without pre-empting what Tom has to say, you will find a discussion of the
issue in Gravitation and Space-time by Ohanian and Ruffini - page 370.
Shortly after Einstein published his theory Kretchmann did a critique where
he showed it basically had no physical content.  Einstein eventually
agreed - but clamed it had heuristic value.  In modern times it is taken to
mean terms in an equation can be divided into absolute (things like the
speed of light and planks constant) and dynamical (things like fields).  The
physical content is that when in covariant form absolute and dynamical terms
must remain absolute or dynamical.  This immediately implies, for example,
the space-time metric is dynamical - which is one of the key elements of GR.

Thanks
Bill

> Rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 46 lines]
>>
>> Tom Roberts
Rex - 26 Aug 2007 10:05 GMT
> >> > I thought that General Covariance is
> >> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 48 lines]
> Thanks
> Bill

I think the relativity principle in General Relativity is simply that
momentum energy is what defines spacetime (or curves it). Therefore
there is no absolute fixed space and time. Space and time or spacetime
is relative to matter (or the stress energy tensor). This is I think
is the
"relativity" principle in GR plain and simple. Agree or disagree, and
why?

rex

> > Rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 50 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Bill Hobba - 27 Aug 2007 11:14 GMT
>> >> > I thought that General Covariance is
>> >> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 60 lines]
> I think the relativity principle in General Relativity is simply that
> momentum energy is what defines spacetime (or curves it).

Then you think wrong.  What you write is a consequence of something much
more fundamental - no prior geometry which implies geometry itself is
dynamical.  No prior geometry is what the Principle of General Invariance in
the modern sense basically is getting at - it implies the metric is
dynamical since it can not be absolute.

> Therefore
> there is no absolute fixed space and time.

The POR already implies that.

> Space and time or spacetime
> is relative to matter (or the stress energy tensor).

Space-time is what is measured with rulers and clocks - it is not relative
to anything, or, more precisely, it has the same relative nature of
something to anything that measures what that something is.  Understanding
what the terms of a model mean is fundamental to understanding the model.
Tautological discussions on the meaning of words is a philosophers game -
not science.

Bill

> This is I think
> is the
[quoted text clipped - 65 lines]
>>
>> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 27 Aug 2007 14:35 GMT
> >> "Rex" <relativitexcali...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 87 lines]
>
> Bill

On Aug 27, 3:28 am, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...@sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> > I have been reading this paper
> >http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 83 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -

In other words. In SR, inertial frames are relative while
accelerated frames are not relative. In GR. The spacetime
was made curved so that acceleration would become
coordinate acceleration and because of background
independence (no prior geometry due to dynamical
metric). General Covariance was born unto the world
(where inertial and non-inertial frames became both relative
in contrast to SR).

rex

> > This is I think
> > is the
[quoted text clipped - 69 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Tom Roberts - 26 Aug 2007 20:28 GMT
> I have been reading this paper
> http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>
> Do you agree or not agree with the above, and why?

I'm not sure. IMHO the word "absolute" has so many different meanings
and connotations to different readers that it should be avoided by
careful authors. While it is possible that Norton defined what he means
by it, I doubt it, and have not spent the time to look. To me, a
constant like c or G is not "absolute" in any meaningful sense. In that
vein, I see nothing "absolute" in GR at all.

    But note that in GR, once one has solved the field equation
    for a particular problem, the resulting spacetime manifold
    _IS_ "absolute" in every common meaning of the word, and is
    quite clearly non-trivial. So one must distinguish between
    the theory and the solutions and models it constructs.

Yes, once one has a physical theory in one coordinate system, it is
essentially trivial to extend it into a generally covariant theory --
simply apply elementary calculus (or more abstract geometrical
techniques) to determine how the equations of the theory appear in any
other coordinate system. The (unstated) problem with this is that one
must start with a COMPLETE theory in the initial coordinate system;
invariably one starts with Minkowski coordinates (or equivalent), and
they are valid only in a flat manifold, so one has no clue whether or
not the curvature of the manifold should be part of the theory or not.

> I think the relativity principle in General Relativity is simply that
> momentum energy is what defines spacetime (or curves it). Therefore
> there is no absolute fixed space and time. Space and time or spacetime
> is relative to matter (or the stress energy tensor). This is I think
> is the "relativity" principle in GR plain and simple.

Hmmm. Just the momentum-energy tensor is INSUFFICIENT to obtain a
solution of the field equation, one must also impose boundary conditions
(or stipulate a topology without boundaries). This is an aspect of the
failure of GR to actually include Mach's principle. Moreover, the metric
invariably appears in the equations defining the energy-momentum tensor
-- while the techniques of differential equations easily accommodate
that, it does remove the ontological basis you are trying to give to the
energy-momentum tensor.

    IOW: you cannot define "momentum energy" without already
    knowing the metric. For instance, in classical mechanics
    the energy of a particle involves v.v; in classical
    electrodynamics the energy of the field involves E.E+B.B
    -- such dot products inherently involve the metric.

> In other words, General Relativity is all about laws remaining
> unchanged
> under an arbitrary transformation of spacetime coordinates. This
> however doesn't mean extending the relativity of motion to accelerated
> motion.

Hmmm. The motion of a given object is always specified relative to some
coordinate system, and in GR neither of those quantities is constrained
in any way. In particular, either the object or the coordinates can be
"accelerated", and the equations of GR remain valid. One must be careful
what one means by these words....

> Since last year and before this month. I thought General
> Relativity was all about extending lorentz invariance of SR and the
> relativity of motion to accelerated motion. I guess some newbies or
> layman would also have this long standing misconception.

Hmmm. IMHO the key aspects of GR are not related to "motion",
accelerated or not. They are related to GEOMETRY.

Tom Roberts
Bill Hobba - 27 Aug 2007 11:53 GMT
>> I have been reading this paper
>> http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> connotations to different readers that it should be avoided by careful
> authors.

For sure.  The authors whose reference I gave do define it, but the
definition they use is basically what I wrote - which is rather vague.  They
claim another reference defines it fully -- Anderson - Principle Of
Relativity Physics.

Section 8 of the following gives the full technical details of Andersons
definition:
http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades.pdf

I prefer basing GR on 'no prior geometry', as Wheeler puts it, rather than
recourse to absolute and dynamical terms.  Wald says it succinctly - The
principle of General Covariance states that the metric of space is the only
quantity pertaining to space that can appear in the laws of physics - Wald -
General Relativity page 57.  To me that says is it all.  But there is no
doubt 'absolute' and 'dynamical' terms are what some authors use.

To the original poster - please be aware that the exact principles of what
General Relativity is based upon does vary from author to author and
different time periods.  The absolute and dynamical idea seems to be from
textbooks in the 1960's.  The definition from Wald which is a much more
modern source.  Again if you are interested do read the link above, and the
reference I gave previously, where the issue is discussed.  Like a lot of
issues at the foundations of any subject there is often no right or wrong
answer - simply different views that give a better insight.  My view is GR
is based on no prior geometry which implies the metric is dynamical.

Thanks
Bill

> While it is possible that Norton defined what he means by it, I doubt it,
> and have not spent the time to look. To me, a constant like c or G is not
[quoted text clipped - 59 lines]
>
> Tom Roberts
Bill Hobba - 27 Aug 2007 12:10 GMT
>>> I have been reading this paper
>>> http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 110 lines]
>> Hmmm. IMHO the key aspects of GR are not related to "motion", accelerated
>> or not. They are related to GEOMETRY.

I forgot to post the conclusion of the article I linked to which I believe
sums it up rather well:

'The debate over the significance of general covariance in Einstein's
general theory of relativity is far from settled. There are essentially
three view points now current. First is the viewpoint routinely attributed
to Einstein. It holds that the achievement of general covariance
automatically implements a generalized principle of relativity. In view of
the considerable weight of criticism, this view is no longer tenable.
Relativity principles are symmetry principles; the requirement of general
covariance is not a symmetry principle. The requirement of general
covariance, taken by itself, is even devoid of physical content. It can be
salvaged as a physical principle by supplementing it with further
requirements. The most popular are a restriction to simple law forms and a
restriction on the additional structures that may be used to achieve general
covariance. However neither supplement condition has been developed
systematically beyond the stage of fairly casual remarks. The second
viewpoint has been developed by Anderson and is based on his distinction
between absolute and dynamical objects. His 'principle of general invariance'
entails that a space-time theory can have no non-trivial absolute objects.
Anderson argues that the principle is a relativity principle, since it is a
symmetry principle, and that it is what Einstein really intended with his
principle of general covariance. In this approach, general relativity is
able to extend the symmetry group of special relativity from the Lorentz
group to the general group. This extension depends on the metric being a
dynamical object, which is no longer required to be preserved by the
symmetry transformations of the theory's relativity principle. The third
viewpoint holds that the dynamical character of the metric is irrelevant in
this context and that the metric must be preserved under the theory's
symmetry group, if that group is to be associated with a relativity
principle. Since the metrics of general relativistic space-time have, in
general, no non-trivial symmetries, there is no non-trivial relativity
principle in general relativity. Whatever may have been its role and place
historically, general covariance is now automatically achieved by routine
methods in the formulation of all seriously considered space-time theories.
The foundations of general relativity do not lie in one or other principle
advanced by Einstein. Rather, they lie in the simple assertion that
space-time is semi-Riemannian, with gravity represented by its curvature and
its metric tensor governed by the Einstein field equations.'

My view lies mostly in in the third camp - although I suppose it also
includes some elements of the second group.  GR is based on 'no prior
geometry' - which I take to mean 'the metric must be preserved under the
theory's symmetry group'.  Symmetry, like it is in much of physics, is the
real key here - the symmetry implied by 'no prior geometry', which dictates
the metric should have its own lagrangian.  That is 'almost' enough to
uniquely determine the field equations.

Thanks
Bill

>> Tom Roberts
Rex - 27 Aug 2007 14:34 GMT
> > I have been reading this paper
> >http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 83 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -

In other words. In SR, inertial frames are relative while
accelerated frames are not relative. In GR. The spacetime
was made curved so that acceleration would become
coordinate acceleration and because of background
independence (no prior geometry due to dynamical
metric). General Covariance was born unto the world
(where inertial and non-inertial frames became both relative
in contrast to SR). Agree?

rex
Bill Hobba - 28 Aug 2007 02:27 GMT
>> > I have been reading this paper
>> >http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 90 lines]
> independence (no prior geometry due to dynamical
> metric).

No.

>General Covariance was born unto the world
> (where inertial and non-inertial frames became both relative
> in contrast to SR). Agree?

No.

Bill

> rex
Rex - 28 Aug 2007 12:11 GMT
> >> > I have been reading this paper
> >> >http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 100 lines]
>
> Bill

I was connecting what you are saying with Baez. In
the article

http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/Relativity/SR/acceleration.html

He wrote:

"The difference between general and special relativity
is that in the general theory all frames of reference
including spinning and accelerating frames are treated
on an equal footing.  In special relativity accelerating
frames are different from inertial frames.  Velocities
are relative but acceleration is treated as absolute.
In general relativity all motion is relative.  To accommodate
this change general relativity has to use curved
space-time.  In special relativity space-time is
always flat."

What I described is taken from his article connecting
your description and uniting it all into general..
So Baez is wrong? Why and why not?

rex

> > rex- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -
Bill Hobba - 29 Aug 2007 08:51 GMT
>> >> > I have been reading this paper
>> >> >http://www.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/papers/decades_re-set.pdf
[quoted text clipped - 134 lines]
> your description and uniting it all into general..
> So Baez is wrong?

No

> Why and why not?

Why is your comprehension ability not up to understanding what Baez said and
able to explain it in a post, and instead write near gibberish like 'The
space-time was made curved so that acceleration would become coordinate
acceleration'?  Beats me. He never used the words 'coordinate
acceleration' - whatever the hell that is supposed to mean - little alone
acceleration becoming coordinate acceleration - which is doubly obscure.
This time please please read it more carefully.

Bill

> rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>>
>> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 29 Aug 2007 09:37 GMT
> >> "Rex" <relativitexcali...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 152 lines]
>
> Bill

Oh. I just thought all accelarations in GR are coordinate
accelerations.
But realized coordinate accelerations is like free fall and separate
from plain accelerations. In GR, we are eternally in movement in
the geodesic path because of time. So I just can't imagine how
to model plain acceleration of an object in the GR spacetime
continuum. But I'd try to imagine it before going to sleep tomorrow.
GR is really logic defying indeed :)

rex

> > rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 29 Aug 2007 09:42 GMT
> > "Rex" <relativitexcali...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 167 lines]
>
> rex

Another. In SR. There is still fixed space and time background
where object moves.. only they are united as spacetime. In
GR. It's no prior geometry or background independent.. so I
just can't imagine how object can move when the metric
is dynamic itself and so have difficulty understanding
acceleration of an object in the dynamical spacetime
where there isn't even a background. Gee. If someone can
give an intuitive insight or two about this. Pls. do so because
I'm already getting dizzy thinking of all this :) Tnx.

rex

> > > rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Bill Hobba - 30 Aug 2007 07:44 GMT
>> >> "Rex" <relativitexcali...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
>>
[quoted text clipped - 171 lines]
> Oh. I just thought all accelarations in GR are coordinate
> accelerations.

Where in the literature have you come across the term 'coordinate
acceleration'?  Or is this something you just made up?  You know what they
say - if you don't stop it you will ......'

Bill

> But realized coordinate accelerations is like free fall and separate
> from plain accelerations. In GR, we are eternally in movement in
[quoted text clipped - 16 lines]
>>
>> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 30 Aug 2007 15:57 GMT
> >> "Rex" <relativitexcali...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 181 lines]
>
> Bill

Learn it from Tom Roberts. See:

http://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics/browse_thread/thread/418a378f219de225
/450903795d04d64b#450903795d04d64b


You mean he is using an non-standard term?

rex

> > But realized coordinate accelerations is like free fall and separate
> > from plain accelerations. In GR, we are eternally in movement in
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Daryl McCullough - 30 Aug 2007 17:21 GMT
Rex says...

>> Where in the literature have you come across the term 'coordinate
>> acceleration'?  Or is this something you just made up?  You know what they
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
>You mean he is using an non-standard term?

I think you misunderstood what Tom was talking about.

There are two slightly different intuitive notions of acceleration.

First is a physical notion of acceleration. If you are
in a vehicle that is accelerating, then you are pressed
against your seat. If you are in an elevator accelerating
upwards, you are pressed against the floor. You can measure
physical acceleration with an "accelerometer". The simplest
type of accelerometer is a heavy metal ball connected to the
end of a stiff spring. If the spring is compressed or stretched,
then you are accelerating in the direction of the spring axis.
If the spring is relaxed, you are not accelerating.

The second notion of acceleration is in terms of coordinates:
If you plot an object's position x as a function of time t,
then if you get a straight line, then the object is not
accelerating (in the x-direction). If you get a curved line,
then the object is accelerating.

These two notions are the same only in very special circumstances:
1. If there are no gravitational fields, and
2. If you are using an intertial Cartesian coordinate system.

Why does gravity change things? Because sitting at rest on
the Earth "feels" the same as accelerating upwards. Your
feet are pressed against the ground, the spring in your
accelerometer is compressed. It's exactly as if you were
accelerating. But if you plot your height as a function
of time, you will get a straight line. So you are accelerating
in the physical sense, but not in the coordinate sense.

Why does it matter whether you are using Cartesian coordinates?
Cartesian coordinates are the usual x, and y coordinates that
people are first introduced to. An example of non-Cartesian
coordinates is polar coordinates: instead of x and y,
you can describe an object's location in terms of r (its
distance from the center) and theta (the direction of the
object from the center, measured as a angle between 0 and 2 pi).
Cartesian versus non-Cartesian
makes a difference because whether the path of an object as
a function of time is a "straight line" or not depends on
what coordinate system you are using. For example, if an
object is traveling in a circle of radius 10 meters at the
rate of one complete circuit per second, then in terms of
Cartesian coordinates, we have

   x = 10 cosine(2 pi * t)
   y = 10 sine(2 pi * t)

If you plot x versus t or y versus t, you will *not* get
a straight line. On the other hand, if you switch to
polar coordinates, you have

   r = 10
   theta = 2 pi * t

If you plot r versus t and theta versus t, you will get
a straight line. Only for Cartesian coordinates in the
absence of gravity is it the case that a straight line
means no physical acceleration.

Now, you seem to be confused about what General Relativity
has to say about acceleration. What it DOESN'T say is that
"...all accelarations in GR are coordinate accelerations".

What it says is exactly what I've just said: Physically
measurable acceleration is not the same as coordinate
acceleration in the presence of large massive gravitating
bodies. An object if freefall
experiences no physically measurable acceleration (an accelerometer
in freefall isn't compressed; if you are standing on an elevator
that is dropping in freefall, you aren't pressed against the
floor). But if you plot its position versus time, you will
not get a straight line. So physically measurable acceleration
is zero while the coordinate acceleration is nonzero.

On the other hand, if something is sitting at rest on the surface
of the Earth, then the physically measurable acceleration is
*not* zero (you feel your feet pressed against the floor of an
elevator, an accelerometer will be compressed), but the coordinate
acceleration (plotting height versus time) is zero.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY
Daryl McCullough - 30 Aug 2007 17:30 GMT
Bill Hobba says...

>Where in the literature have you come across the term 'coordinate
>acceleration'?

By "coordinate acceleration", I think he just means:

   a_x = d/dt v_x
   a_y = d/dt v_y
   a_z = d/dt v_z

   where v_x = dx/dt
   v_y = dy/dt
   v_z = dz/dt

Somewhere along the line, Rex must have heard someone say something
like the following:

An observer in freefall near the Earth feels no acceleration, but
his coordinate acceleration is nonzero.

From such a statement, he made the leap to: "In General Relativity,
there is no real acceleration, there is only coordinate acceleration."
Which is completely wrong, but I can sort of understand how he came
to the conclusion.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY
Rex - 31 Aug 2007 00:22 GMT
On Aug 31, 12:30 am, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough)
wrote:
> Bill Hobba says...
>
[quoted text clipped - 23 lines]
>
> --

That's right. I was focusing much on the physics of free fall and
gravity and understood and could visualize how it happens in
terms of coordinate acceleration where the curveness of
spacetime causes something to converge which is what
gravity is all about. So fixated on coordinate acceleration
I ignored normal acceleration of a car and how to model
it in the spacetime or worldline diagram. But I guess it is
easy to do that by just extending the acceleration in a normal
newtonian diagram to a diagram where time is moving
and the worldline is ever going upwards. In minkowski diagram,
things occured as "events" compared to newtonian way of
presenting it. Do you know of a web site that compares the
two and illustrates it clearly? Right now I just want to visualize
what happens in the spacetime continnum of GR when an
object like a car is accelerating on the surface. I have already
visualized clearly the mechanics of free fall but not something that
is stuck to the surface and moving in between points on
the surface (like an accelerating car). Maybe you can explain
how this differs to free fall in a curved non-euclidean fashion?

Tnx.

rex

> Daryl McCullough
> Ithaca, NY
Rex - 31 Aug 2007 00:33 GMT
> On Aug 31, 12:30 am, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough)
> wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 50 lines]
>
> rex

Or more specifically. In free fall. We are in geodesic path with
no force acting on us. How about in a car accelerating on
the surface of the earth. What's the spacetime diagram for it?
Is it something like two geodesic paths touching (the car
and the surface of the earth). But what makes it confusing is
time is also moving. So even if the car is parked on a location
of the earth. The spacetime diagram still has time moving, now
when the car accelerates, what happens to the worldline, maybe
it moves to the x, y, and z coordinates while time increases?

rex

> > Daryl McCullough
> > Ithaca, NY- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 31 Aug 2007 04:39 GMT
> > On Aug 31, 12:30 am, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough)
> > wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 62 lines]
>
> rex

Btw.. I have reviewed and understood already the difference
between a car accelerating on a surface versus coordinate
acceleration. In the worldline, if an object is considered at
rest with respect to the three space coordinates, it is still
travelling through the dimension of time. Its world line will
be a straight line that is parallel with the time axis of the
graph. If the object moves through space with uniform motion,
its world line will still be straight, but no longer parallel with
the time axis. If the object moves with nonuniform motion,
its world line becomes curved. This is in flat minkowski
spacetime. In case the flatness becomes curved. The
the relationships still hold.. only there is possibility of
coordinate acceleration or free fall or gravity. Now the
$10 question:... by curving spacetime, General
Covariance is possible, something flat spacetime can't
do. Why is curving spacetime the answer to General
Covariance? A simple reply or intuitive description will do
without incredible hard mathematics and equations.

rex

> > > Daryl McCullough
> > > Ithaca, NY- Hide quoted text -
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Rex - 31 Aug 2007 15:24 GMT
> > > On Aug 31, 12:30 am, stevendaryl3...@yahoo.com (Daryl McCullough)
> > > wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 83 lines]
>
> rex

Btw.. I'll try answering my own question after the insight
of the difference between car acceleratiion and
coordinate acceleration (free fall) and after re-reading
this entire thread (many good stuff here so I'll print them
for future reference. Thanks for all guys). So I think the
the answer why curving spacetime is related to General
Covariance is because spacetime is not a priori flat (which
is limiting, it's like saying a woman entire body is flat in
2D). So the greatest flexibility is for the the curvature to
happen. Then general covariance can be made to work
esp. in light of the background indepedent nature.

rex

> > > > Daryl McCullough
> > > > Ithaca, NY- Hide quoted text -
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Koobee Wublee - 28 Aug 2007 06:54 GMT
> SR had the Principle of Relativity, which
> (loosely) states that one can write the laws of physics relative to any
> inertial frame and they will be the same equations.

There is your inertial frame of reference again.  All frames of
references should be the same.  There are no special frames of
reference such as these so called inertial frames.  <shrug>

> In GR the analogous
> postulate is general covariance, which replaces "inertial frame" with
> "arbitrary coordinates" (a seemingly minor change with profound
> implications).

This is a total nonsense.  In GR, what matters is the mathematics
itself.  The field equations represent GR.  Invention of phrases such
as general covariance is to hide physicists's lack of understanding in
the field equations.  <shrug>  GR is completely mathematical in which
you sometimes referred to as geometrical.  <shrug>

> > Some
> > believe "general relativity" is a misnomer and it should
> > be called "Einstein's theory of gravitation".
>
> It is actually rather more than just gravitation. It is about geometry.

GR is actually a reflection of Hilbert's ever capable BS skills.
Isn't one of his problems calls out to extend the calculus of
variations?  To justify his BS Lagrangian that results in the field
equations and thus GR.  <shrug>

> The difference between SR and GR is best described geometrically:

Both GR and SR can be described geometrically.  <shrug>  The can also
be described as a 4-dimensional extension to Riemann's 3-dimensional
concept of curved space.  <shrug>

> GR describes any geometry, as long as it is consistent with the
> energy-momentum density of the world being modeled.

This "energy-momentum" tensor is zero (in vacuum) which covers 99.9%
of the study.  Since energy and momentum are both observer dependent,
it absolutely ludicrous to have such an observer dependent quantity to
manifest a curvature in spacetime.  There goes your general covariant
concept.  <shrug>

> SR describes only a
> geometry that has the 10 Killing vectors of the Lorentz group; this
> requires a flat manifold with the topology of R^4.

This is by far the most complicated I have seen to describe flat
space.  <shrug>

> Ben Rudiak-Gould wrote:

> > General relativity is what you get when you drop these 20
> > constraints. [...]
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>         higher orders of derivatives of the metric (i.e. other
>         terms in the Lagrangian).

With the field equations, you get exactly second order in the partial
differential equations.  I don't know what you mean by other than
second order partial derivatives.

> > The interesting thing is that all of the forces of the Standard Model can be derived by the same general argument: you start with a global symmetry, extend it to an arbitrary local transformation, write down what it means to still satisfy the global symmetry, and then replace the right hand sides with charges and field components.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Ditto. I understand what I wrote above, but not all the implications....

I don't understand most of your word salad, but I can call your bluff
any day.  <shrug>
Eric Gisse - 28 Aug 2007 08:08 GMT
>> SR had the Principle of Relativity, which
>> (loosely) states that one can write the laws of physics relative to any
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>references should be the same.  There are no special frames of
>reference such as these so called inertial frames.  <shrug>

A course in classical mechanics would be highly instructive for you.

[...]
zzbunker@netscape.net - 25 Aug 2007 03:52 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Hope someone can shed some light into all this. Tnx

 Lorentz invariance is like the god transfrom to E-M cranks,
 so there is no way to explain it, it's just there
 to keep the AT&T und IBM stooges neo-nano-ing.
 General Covariance is an actual mathematical transformation.

> Rex.
schoenfeld.one@gmail.com - 26 Aug 2007 11:19 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>
> Rex.

The Principle of Relativity just says no absolute reference frame is
necessary to describe nature.

A consequence is that nature can be described successfully without
reference to a coordinate system.

An equation which describes something without referencing a coordinate
system is "generally covariant". That's all "General Covariance"
really means.

Tensor calculus is a mathematical system designed (arguably) for that
explicit purpose - to describe the mathematical structures which
remain invariant (i.e. do not change with coordinates).
Rex - 26 Aug 2007 12:11 GMT
On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:

> > Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> > the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -

In other words, General Relativity is all about laws remaining
unchanged
under an arbitrary transformation of spacetime coordinates. This
however doesn't mean extending the relativity of motion to accelerated
motion. Since last year and before this month. I thought General
Relativity was all about extending lorentz invariance of SR and the
relativity of motion to accelerated motion. I guess some newbies or
layman would also have this long standing misconception.

Rex
Pmb - 26 Aug 2007 13:17 GMT
> On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 37 lines]
> unchanged
> under an arbitrary transformation of spacetime coordinates.

Are you sure about that? This has been one of the things that has bothered
me for years. Its obvious that the laws of electrodynamics change under a
Galiliean transformation so this tells me that not all transformations are
valid. Isn't it more accurate to say

"General Covariance is all about laws of physics remaining unchanged under
an arbitrary but legitimate, transformation of spacetime coordinates."

Pete

> This
> however doesn't mean extending the relativity of motion to accelerated
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> Rex
Rex - 26 Aug 2007 13:27 GMT
> > On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 47 lines]
>
> Pete

Well. Since I mentioned "spacetime" then Galilean is not meant
or being referred because it began when Minkowski unified or united
space and time into spacetime. Therefore spacetime automatically
implies relativistic. It is wrong to say "Galilean spacetime" because
spacetime is like a new word that meant realtivistic. So "Galilean
spacetime" should instead be "Galilean space/time".

rex

> > This
> > however doesn't mean extending the relativity of motion to accelerated
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>
> - Show quoted text -
Pmb - 26 Aug 2007 15:41 GMT
>> > On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 52 lines]
>
> Well. Since I mentioned "spacetime" then Galilean is not meant...

Actually there is such a thing called Galilean spacetime and there is a
transformation for it from one set of spaceteime coordinates to anotehr
where t' = t.. E.g. See -
http://physics.nmt.edu/~raymond/classes/ph13xbook/node39.html

But if you disagreewith the name then lets forget about the name since
that's not really the point I'm trying to make. Let us say we construct a
spacetime transformation in which we start with the Lorentz transformation
and set gamma = 1 and t' = t.  If you were to check an SR text such as
"Special Relativity: A Modern Introduction," by Hans C. Ohanian. Its on page
50 and reads

t' = t

x' = x - Vt

y' = y

z' = z

Since this is a map from the 4-d spacetime manifold onto itself it is a
spacetime transformation. The physical meaning being that it is an invalid
transformation and only works for v << c and for "small" distances.

Pete
Tom Roberts - 26 Aug 2007 15:05 GMT
>> In other words, General Relativity is all about laws remaining
>> unchanged
>> under an arbitrary transformation of spacetime coordinates.
>
> Are you sure about that?

It is one aspect of GR, but is not "all" of GR.

> This has been one of the things that has bothered
> me for years. Its obvious that the laws of electrodynamics change under a
> Galiliean transformation so this tells me that not all transformations are
> valid.

You got it backwards: what that is really saying is that the laws of
electrodynamics you used are not correct. It should be obvious that
nature uses no coordinates, so valid models of nature cannot possibly
depend on one's choice of coordinates. So you need to re-write your
"laws of electrodynamics" so they are independent of coordinates.

Here's one way of writing Maxwell's equations in coordinate-independent
form:
    dF = 0
    *d*F = J
where d is the exterior derivative, F is the Maxwell 2-form, * is the
Hodge dual, and J is the current 1-form. Note F includes both E and B
fields, and these two equations include all 4 of the traditional set. No
quantity in the above equations references any coordinate in any way,
but when projected onto Minkowski coordinates they reduce to the
traditional set of Maxwell's equations.

> Isn't it more accurate to say
> "General Covariance is all about laws of physics remaining unchanged under
> an arbitrary but legitimate, transformation of spacetime coordinates."

As long as one selects valid coordinate systems, any transformations
between them are "legitimate", because ARBITRARY human choices cannot
possibly affect physical phenomena. IOW: coordinate systems are merely
systematic methods of applying labels to the points of a manifold, and
how one applies labels does not affect anything (except descriptions
that use the labels).

The equations of GR, and the Maxwell's equations above, are invariant
under a Galilean transform, a Lorentz transform, and any other transform
between valid coordinate systems.

Tom Roberts
Ken S. Tucker - 26 Aug 2007 19:00 GMT
> >> In other words, General Relativity is all about laws remaining
> >> unchanged
[quoted text clipped - 40 lines]
> under a Galilean transform, a Lorentz transform, and any other transform
> between valid coordinate systems.

Ok, so the caution is an equation like
Guv = Tuv , is solved to provide the guv
into the Guv to solve the Tuv.
That renders the guv from the Tuv, and is
ok with me.
A simple example is the Schwarzschild solution,
wherein the metrics accurately reflect the
effects of a material particle on the metrics
guv, such that "Euclidian" CS's are *excluded*,
so statements like the CS doesn't matter are
misleading and unscientific.

Excerise for Tom, wrap a piece of graph
paper around a ball without crinking it.
Regards
Ken
Tom Roberts - 26 Aug 2007 20:37 GMT
>> The equations of GR, and the Maxwell's equations above, are invariant
>> under a Galilean transform, a Lorentz transform, and any other transform
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> effects of a material particle on the metrics
> guv, such that "Euclidian" CS's are *excluded*,

Sure. Note I said above "valid coordinate systems".

> so statements like the CS doesn't matter are
> misleading and unscientific.

My statements involved only VALID coordinate systems (i.e. ones for
which the points of the manifold in a given region can be put into
1-to-1 correspondence with N-tuples of the coordinates). Yes, there are
lots of well-known coordinate systems that are invalid on this (and
other) manifolds. But once one has a valid coordinate system, one can
apply any valid coordinate transform to it and the equations remain
valid in the new coordinates. One can certainly apply Galilean or
Lorentz transforms to any coordinates (the result may not make any
sense, but that's not the point; the point it that it is POSSIBLE, and
such transforms, while useless in their own right, leave the equations
of GR unchanged).

Yes, I did not include all the necessary caveats and conditions -- in a
finite time that simply is not possible. The important one here is that
coordinates are in general valid only over some REGION of the manifold,
not the entire manifold.

> Excerise for Tom, wrap a piece of graph
> paper around a ball without crinking it.

Of course that's not possible -- they have incompatible metrics.

Tom Roberts
schoenfeld.one@gmail.com - 26 Aug 2007 13:56 GMT
> On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 36 lines]
> unchanged
> under an arbitrary transformation of spacetime coordinates.

Yes, the first postulate says that. The second says gravitation is the
curvature of your coordinate system. The law of warpage (how a body
curves your coordinates) is the second postulate taken to the maximal
logical conclusion.

Note that the first postulate does imply you can use ANY arbitrary
coordinate system to describe nature. You are still shackled by the
constraints of the other laws of physics (i.e. SR, EM, etc). Only out
of the admissable coordinate systems which can describe nature must
ALL THE LAWS take the same form, which they mostly do (see generally
covariant formulations of EM). The laws of quantum physics do not
succumb to this regime.

>This
> however doesn't mean extending the relativity of motion to accelerated
> motion. Since last year and before this month. I thought General
> Relativity was all about extending lorentz invariance of SR and the
> relativity of motion to accelerated motion. I guess some newbies or
> layman would also have this long standing misconception.

SR can describe accelerated observers.

In SR, Lorentz covariance applies to the entire spacetime.

In GR, Lorentz covariance only applies to infinitessimally small
regions of it because you need to account for curvature of your
coordinates (and other affine properties where torsion is present).

> Rex
Rex - 26 Aug 2007 14:24 GMT
On Aug 26, 8:56 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:

> > On Aug 26, 6:19 pm, schoenfeld....@gmail.com wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 41 lines]
> curves your coordinates) is the second postulate taken to the maximal
> logical conclusion.

There is also a first and second postulates in GR? I know that in
SR, the first postulate is that the laws of physics is the same
in all inertial frames, second postulate is that light travels the
same speed in all inertial frames. Why did you say the second is
about gravitation. What is GR first and second postulate, or third
if there is more?

Of course we Relativists know gravitation is the curvature of
the coordinate system.

> Note that the first postulate does imply you can use ANY arbitrary
> coordinate system to describe nature. You are still shackled by the
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> SR can describe accelerated observers.

But without gravity. So in faraway location in the universe such
as in the Void recently detected, SR can be used to model
accelerated motions between the ships.. is this what you
mean, and our GPS uses GR because of gravity.

> In SR, Lorentz covariance applies to the entire spacetime.
>
> In GR, Lorentz covariance only applies to infinitessimally small
> regions of it because you need to account for curvature of your
> coordinates (and other affine properties where torsion is present).

Hmm.. you seem to be mixing "covariance" and "invariance".
They have different meanings.

In our everyday worlds. We seldom have constant motion.
Acceleration motion is our norm. So this means lorentz
transformation can't be used in GR. Instead coordinates
manipulation is used. What do you say?

Also I think we must change the words "Special Relativity"
and "General Relativity" to more precise words because
it can confuse things a bit and create more anti-relativists in
decades and centuries to come esp. when quantum gravity
arrives.

rex

> > Rex- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -
schoenfeld.one@gmail.com - 26 Aug 2007 15:05 GMT
[...]
> There is also a first and second postulates in GR? I know that in
> SR, the first postulate is that the laws of physics is the same
> in all inertial frames, second postulate is that light travels the
> same speed in all inertial frames. Why did you say the second is
> about gravitation. What is GR first and second postulate, or third
> if there is more?

The second postulate of GR is that which asserts gravitational mass is
inertial mass. It's called the "strong equivalence principle". It does
not follow from other assumptions so therefore it is a postulate.

Physics is not like mathematics in that it is all a self-contained
axiomatic framework. If you look hard enough there's plenty of
implicit postulates everywhere (i.e. universe is a manifold M
associated with a set of objects S, an object is a set of properties
charge, spin, etc,). Such a logical decomposition cannot account for
all observational phenomenon as branches physics in their current
states cannot all be reconciled with each other. Therefore it is
useless and thinking in such terms is transitively, useless (not that
you were, just saying no point arguing about whats a postulate and
whats not unless one clearly but ad-hoc implication of the other).

> > SR can describe accelerated observers.
>
> But without gravity. So in faraway location in the universe such
> as in the Void recently detected, SR can be used to model
> accelerated motions between the ships.. is this what you
> mean, and our GPS uses GR because of gravity.

No, I mean that you can still model an accelerated observer in SR.
Just doa google serach on it.

> > In SR, Lorentz covariance applies to the entire spacetime.
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> Hmm.. you seem to be mixing "covariance" and "invariance".
> They have different meanings.

I thought you meant covariance. I dont think in these terms of Lorentz
invariance or whatever, the only things invariant that matter in SR
are Minkowski spacetime intervals from which all other invariants
follow (via manipulation of 4-vectors).

> In our everyday worlds. We seldom have constant motion.
> Acceleration motion is our norm. So this means lorentz
> transformation can't be used in GR. Instead coordinates
> manipulation is used. What do you say?

No you can't just use a Lorentz transform in GR because curvature (and
torsion in Einstein-Cartan) affect the coordinates. Forget about the
Lorentz transform, that's not important. It's the geometry of
spacetime that's important. A Lorentz transformation is just a
rotation in Minkowski spacetime (hyperbolic along the three time-space
2-planes and circular along the three spatial 2-planes). The Poincare
group is just the set of rotations and translations in Minkowski
spacetime.

In GR you first need a solution to the Einstein-Hilbert field equation
for some distribution of mass and energy which requires the
simultaneous solving of the stress-energy and Einstein tensors. Once
you have that you get your metric and you can construct coordinate
transformations with it.

> Also I think we must change the words "Special Relativity"
> and "General Relativity" to more precise words because
> it can confuse things a bit and create more anti-relativists in
> decades and centuries to come esp. when quantum gravity
> arrives.

There is no axiomatic foundation and trying to think in such terms
will lead to irrelevancy.

> rex
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> > - Show quoted text -
Edward Green - 29 Aug 2007 17:51 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
> where the relativity principle in Special Relativity is extended
> to accelerated motion.

It's often presented that way, in my experience.

> But I found out it was not. So what
> is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity? Some
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> Hope someone can shed some light into all this. Tnx

Ben Rudiak-Gould have given you an erudite answer: maybe I can give
the idiot's version.

"General Relativity" indeed asserts the equivalence of a wider class
of coordinate systems than special relativity, but, as Ben suggests,
does so in a way with less physical content.  We simply develop (well,
maybe not so simply :O-) a mathematical machinery which allows
physical laws to be expressed equivalently in a class of coordinate
systems related by smooth transformations. This machinery was needed
to state the physical content of GR, but is not itself equivalent to
the physical content...

You know, every time you think you are going to go off and give the
two bit idiot's version of something, you wind up getting just as
complicated as any other version.  Sigh.

Anyway, there is some very strong physical content to the assertion of
"Lorentz invariance".  We may take as an experimental given that there
is at least one coordinate system wherein a formally simple set of
physical laws obtains (this eliminates some of the circularity Ben was
worried about).  Now, we conceive a family of coordinate systems
related to this first by "Lorentz transformations".  Now comes the
physical content: we discover that physical laws written in terms of
these _new_ coordinates are all precisely the same form as those
written in the original coordinates.

Which, sadly, is a set of words which can be applied to the machinery
of GR too!  Oops.

There is a precise way to state this, but it's not cheap to come by.
I'd say we put less into the machinery of SR, so the statement of
equivalence in various coordinate systems is physically stronger.  We
put more into the machinery of GR, so that much of the equivalence is
simply tautological.  Of course, buried in this tautology, is plain
old Lorentz invariance at a point...

Well, you've hit upon a good point, and one which I also stumbled on
myself -- I'm not saying it is unknown, but it seems to be widely
unappreciated among those who fancy that they appreciate such things.
I just can't capture it succinctly at this moment.
Rock Brentwood - 29 Aug 2007 21:22 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
> where the relativity principle in Special Relativity is extended
> to accelerated motion.

General Relativity is *not* Special Relativity "extended to
accelerated motion".

General covariance is not General Relativity; but pertains to ANY (and
all) physical foundations that pertain to events that take place in
space and time. This includes, also, Newtonian Physics (and its modern
formulation: Newton-Cartan gravity); and even Aristotlean Physics,
such as could be defined, or ever was.

What distinguishes General Relativity from Newton-Cartan or any other
curved spacetime formalism is NOT the principle of covariance, but the
CAUSAL structure; i.e. the distinction between locally Lorentz or
locally Galilei (i.e. SO(3,0,1)) (vs. locally Aristotlean, etc.)

Under general covariances, local frames have a GL(4) symmetry, which
admits arbitrary transformations of one (non-singular) 4 frame vectors
to any other (non-singular) 4-frame.

Lorentzian symmetry imposes a SO(3,1) (the Lorentz group) on a subset
of frames termed "orthonormal". A definition of orthonormality for
Galilean frames distinguishes a different causal structure; one that
makes the Galilei metric (g_{mn} which has signature (+,0,0,0) and
dual metric g^{mn} (of signature (0,+,+,+)) invariant). The Lorentzian
metric g_{mn} and dual g^{mn} both have signature (+,-,-,-) or (-,+,+,
+), depending on whose convention you adopt (quantum theorists usually
adopt the signature (+,-,-,-), while general relativists, the
signature (-,+,+,+)). The analogue for Galilean symmetry to SO(3,1) is
the homogeneous Galilei group.

Aristotlean symmetry would be with respect to a metric g_{mn} of
signature (0,+,+,+) and dual metric of signature (+,0,0,0). There is
no (named) analogue to SO(3,1), no "Aristotlean group" that is studied
by anyone.

> So what actually is the "relativity" principle in General Relativity?

The relativity principle of any theory cast in the language of general
covariance is simply Galileo's principle of relativity: motion is
relative.

The consequence of that fact, as seemingly innocuous as it is, is far-
reaching. For one, though it is not generally appreciated as such,
already it implies, of necessity, that one has to replace "space" and
"time" by "spacetime", because a consequence of motion's relativity is
that there is no longer any cohesive concept of "point" nor any notion
of spatial geometry! Instead, one has to adopt as the fundamental
"undefined", in place of "point", the deeper notion of "event" --
i.e., that which has a location AT an instant in time -- i.e. a
"point" in spacetime.

This is not hard to see

To make motion relative, the zero of velocity is no longer a
meaningful concept. This means the velocities no longer comprise a
vector space, but an AFFINE space; since that feature (the absence of
any distinguished "zero") is precisely what distingishes an affine
space. Accelerations are still vectors.

One might say that a second principle of relativity exists to
relativise accelerations. But this can only be done by bringing in the
notion of a universal force that satisfies the Equivalence Priciple,
since this is what acceleration would have to relativise to.

Anyway... the consequence of velocities being affine is that positions
are NO LONGER an affine space -- i.e. they do not constitute an affine
geometry! Not Euclidean, not spherical, not hyperbolic, not any
geometry at all of a classical variety.

For the very notion of two points at different times being the "same"
or "different", then, itself becomes relative. If the motion of the
Earth is relative, then in a frame of reference where the Earth is
moving, New York on 9/11 2001 is FAR from New York on 9/11 2007. To
commemorate the event, one would have to go somewhere in the middle of
outerspace where the "Earth used to be".

But the "used to be" part, is itself, relative because motion is
relative. So, any point counts as "used to be", as long as one could
get to that point at that time from 9/11 2001/New York by some motion.

Thus, "point" is no longer a cohesive concept, since the prerequisite
for it to be "cohesive" (the notion of "sameness" of points at
different times) is now relative. In its place, one has the deeper
notion of point-instant, or event.

All of this is a consequence of Galilei, not Einstein or Minkowski and
pertains to ALL physics, be it Aristotlean, Galilei/Newton, Poincare/
Einstein/Lorentz, etc.

Since velocities are affine, instead of vectors, this means points
reside in what's called an affine bundle -- which is a topological
manifold endowed with a structure whereby the vicinity of each point
(that is, "event") has the appearance, approximately, as an affine
space.

At this point, you're dealing with (generally curved) spacetimes.
Whether you restrict it further with the (logically unecessary)
assumption that it also be "flat" is not relevant here. The issue at
hand is that this is the arena of general covariance.
Tom Roberts - 30 Aug 2007 05:40 GMT
> Lorentzian symmetry imposes a SO(3,1) (the Lorentz group) on a subset
> of frames termed "orthonormal". A definition of orthonormality for
> Galilean frames distinguishes a different causal structure; one that
> makes the Galilei metric (g_{mn} which has signature (+,0,0,0) and
> dual metric g^{mn} (of signature (0,+,+,+)) invariant).

This makes no sense: one must have g^ij g_jk = d^i_k (the Kroenecker
delta), but your claimed metric and its dual yield ZERO.

I believe the usual approach is to not assign a metric to spacetime at
all, only to space.

> Aristotlean symmetry would be with respect to a metric g_{mn} of
> signature (0,+,+,+) and dual metric of signature (+,0,0,0).

Ditto.

> [... velocities have affine structure]

Yes. This is often/usually expressed as all timelike 4-velocities have
norm=1, so one can treat them as vectors rather than an affine 4-tuple.
Spacelike trajectories of course have norm=-1, and null trajectories
have norm=0. Physicists generally ignore the subtleties here....

Tom Roberts
Edward Green - 31 Aug 2007 01:19 GMT
> Before this month. I thought that General Covariance is
> the General Relativity Theory version of Lorentz Invariance
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> only in the infinitesimal sense. So what actually is the
> "relativity" principle in General Relativity?

OK.

Here is a simple and possibly even accurate analogy.

Scientists living in a plane have discovered a set of coordinates x, y
in which the Law of Squares, which states that  x^2 + y^2 = r^2, is
experimentally verified. The Planarians call these coordinates
"inertial".  A Planarian scientist postulates that any coordinates u,v
related to x,y coordinates by orthogonal transformation (rigid
rotation) are also inertial, in that u^2 + v^2 = r^2.  Orthogonal
transformations then correspond to "Lorentz transformations", and the
persistence of the law is the "formal equivalence of physical law
under transformation of coordinates".

Now some exceptionally clever fellow realizes that we don't have to
restrict ourself to orthogonal transformations: he notices that we can
write the law in the form r = z'Mz, where z == (x,y) is the
"coordinate vector" and M is the "metric matrix".  Of course the
metric matrix is so simple in so-called inertial coordinates that we
hardly notice it, being the identity matrix, but by allowing general
symmetric matrices we extend the "formal equivalence of physical law"
to skew transformations of coordinates.

In what sense are the two "formal equivalences" equivalent, and in
what sense are they inequivalent?

They are equivalent in the sense that "a physical law invariant in
form under transformation of coordinates" describes either case:
apparently we have simply extended the scope of our existing
principle.

There _is_ a sense in which our two "equivalences" are not equivalent,
however.  The first law has a particularly simple experimental
interpretation: we lay out meter sticks along two coordinate
directions, we lay them out along the long leg of the triangle, we
square the results and we add -- we can use the same meter sticks in
every coordinate system and perform the identical operations.

The second law requires us in general to lay out our meter sticks as
before, but now to perform manipulations involving numbers specific to
the specific coordinate system.  The specific numbers are hidden in
our generic "M", so we have camouflaged the loss of symmetry. There
really was something special (preferred) about the first class of
coordinate systems, something operational, now hidden by the extended
machinery.
 
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