Help with Lagrangian mechanics
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bit188 - 14 Oct 2007 22:46 GMT I'm stuck on a problem involving the Lagrangian formulation of classical mechanics. Here is the problem and what I've done so far; help is greatly appreciated.
(Problem: A wedge of mass M and angle [alpha] slides freely on a horizontal plane. A particle of mass m slides freely on the wedge. Determine the motion of the particle as well as that of the wedge.)
Solution (so far): Let l denote the length of the hypotenuse of the wedge. Our kinetic and potential energies are
T_m = (m/2)[(dl/dt)^2] V_m = -mglsin[alpha]
I'm having trouble specifying the speed of the wedge, so I can't come up with the kinetic energy. Obviously, however, the wedge's potential energy is zero.
Thanks again.
tadchem - 15 Oct 2007 01:12 GMT > I'm stuck on a problem involving the Lagrangian formulation of > classical mechanics. Here is the problem and what I've done so far; [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > > Thanks again. Back to basics: The Lagrangian function L is defined as the difference of the kinetic T and potential V energies:
L = T - V
T is expressed in terms of the general position coordinates (q) and general velocities (q-dot), while V depends solely on position coordinates (q).
The Lagranges equations for _each_ of the particles in the system takes the form:
d[ d(L) / d(q-dot) ] / dt = d(L) / d(q)
These equations are separate equations for each particle in the system and for each orthogonal coordinate.
They serve to guide you in the selection of a coordinate system in which momenta - the d(L) / d(q-dot) term - is conserved and the equations of motion are separable.
Hints:
Both particles will move laterally in opposite directions to conserve the horizontal position of the center of mass.
The energy to move *both* the wedge and the mass will come solely from the potential energy change of the sliding mass as it moves downward (vertically).
Each object has its own mass and motion.
This should suggest a stationary frame of reference passing through the initial center of mass.
Set up the Lagrange equations for the initial equation using the suggested frame of reference and integrate.
Tom Davidson Richmond, VA
Bruce Scott TOK - 15 Oct 2007 14:13 GMT >I'm having trouble specifying the speed of the wedge, so I can't come >up with the kinetic energy. Obviously, however, the wedge's potential >energy is zero. Use the centers of gravity of the wedge and the particle for your two position coordinates. Express the Lagrangian in terms of those coordinates. If there is no rotation involved, that's all you need.
As an exercise, you should be able to prove that the momentum and kinetic energy of a distributed object is given by those of its C/M. Rotation is slightly trickier, but only slightly (if you're good at doing integrals).
 Signature ciao, Bruce
drift wave turbulence: http://www.rzg.mpg.de/~bds/
tadchem - 16 Oct 2007 01:40 GMT On Oct 15, 9:13 am, Bruce Scott TOK <Use-Author-Supplied-Address- Header@[127.1]> wrote:
> >I'm having trouble specifying the speed of the wedge, so I can't come > >up with the kinetic energy. Obviously, however, the wedge's potential [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > drift wave turbulence: http://www.rzg.mpg.de/~bds/ The wedge will move only horizontally. The sliding mass will move both horizontally and vertically (with the horizontal component possessing an equal and opposite moment to that of the wedge). A line drawn between the Centers of Mass (CoM) of the two will rotate unless the angle of the incline is 0.
Draw a diagram. It may help. Look at the 'before' (sliding mass at the top of the wedge) and 'after' (sliding mass at the bottom of the wedge just touching the tabletop) and remember that horizontal position of the CoM of the SYSTEM (the weighted mean of the CoMs of the two masses) is conserved. Drawn so that the wedge moves to the left, the sliding mass will move to the right AND will drop.
The OP is misleading himself by selecting displacement along the incline of the wedge as a coordinate. This is oblique to the motion of the wedge itself as well as subject to acceleration as the wedge itself moves.
The CoM of a system is the reference frame of choice only if there is not an "absolute" frame like the table in billiard ball problems (as is often the case in simple mechanics/dynamics) with respect to which all other motions can be measured.
A better choice of frame of reference would be the 'ground' surface, with respect to which the wedge moves ONLY in a horizontal direction, and with respect to which only the sliding mass has a vertical component to its motion. The motions become thus separable, and the equations of motion become much simpler to solve.
In general conservation of energy and conservation of momentum are very useful tools, as long as *all* relevant energies are considered. In elastic collisions and frictionless motion simple kinetic and potential energy are sufficient. When inelasticity or friction arise, they too must be considered as sinks for energy.
For example, when considering the transfer of momentum and energy between two non-spherical 3-D molecules in space, the redistribution of energy to vibrational, rotational, and translational modes (inelastic interactions) must be handled with consideration of the maintenance of thermal equilibrium in all available modes of molecular motion. The problem becomes a statistical one because of the chaotic sensitivity of the outcome of any individual collision to the exact orientations and velocities of the colliding particles. Individual outcomes cannot be well predicted, but statistical averages over LARGE numbers of such trials can be determined.
Tom Davidson Richmond, VA
Bruce Scott TOK - 17 Oct 2007 10:38 GMT Tom Davidson misunderstood me...
>On Oct 15, 9:13 am, Bruce Scott TOK <Use-Author-Supplied-Address- >Header@[127.1]> wrote: [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >> position coordinates. Express the Lagrangian in terms of those >> coordinates. If there is no rotation involved, that's all you need. I didn't say use the CG of the system, but to use the CG of each object as each of two coordinates in the Lagrangian. The formulation of the problem suggests the wedge will not rotate (otherwise, you would use an angle of its rotation as an additional coordinate).
The directions of motion of the two CG's may suggest using a _vector_ coordinate for each of them. In 2D motion you have 4 dependent variables (etc).
 Signature ciao, Bruce
drift wave turbulence: http://www.rzg.mpg.de/~bds/
Thomas - 17 Oct 2007 16:49 GMT > I'm stuck on a problem involving the Lagrangian formulation of > classical mechanics. Here is the problem and what I've done so far; [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > > Thanks again. Do you necessarily need the Lagrangian formulation? The point is that it (like the Hamiltonian formulation) often tends to make things unnecessarily complicated in comparison to the Newtonian form: here the gravitational force on the particle along the slope of the wedge is obviously m*g*sin(alpha), which you can decompose into the vertical and horizontal components m*g*sin^2(alpha) and m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) respectively (that is the horizontal acceleration of the particle is g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha)). So according to Newton's third law, the horizontal force on the wedge will be equal and opposite to the horizontal force on the particle and thus its acceleration is -m/M*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha).
Thomas
Puppet_Sock - 17 Oct 2007 23:02 GMT [snip]
> Do you necessarily need the Lagrangian formulation? I suspect that the OP had the problem of setting up the Lagrangian formulation of the problem, not just solving the equations of motion any old way he could. Socks
tadchem - 18 Oct 2007 08:39 GMT > > I'm stuck on a problem involving the Lagrangian formulation of > > classical mechanics. Here is the problem and what I've done so far; [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > it (like the Hamiltonian formulation) often tends to make things > unnecessarily complicated in comparison to the Newtonian form: No. The point of Lagrangian mechanics is that relationships between momentum and energy exist that are invariant with respect to changes in coordinate systems. It allows the investigator the freedom to choose whatever coordinate system is most convenient for solving the problem.
> here the gravitational force on the particle along the slope of the > wedge is obviously m*g*sin(alpha), which you can decompose into the > vertical and horizontal components AH! The value of selecting a convenient frame of reference and system of coordinates appears!
> m*g*sin^2(alpha) and > m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) respectively (that is the horizontal > acceleration of the particle is g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha)). So according > to Newton's third law, the horizontal force on the wedge will be equal > and opposite to the horizontal force on the particle and thus its > acceleration is -m/M*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha). Meanwhile the vertical acceleration affects only the sliding mass. Given the Lagrangian function of each mass and the *indicated* coordinate system (recall that the OP had originally selected one axis as parallel to the slope of the wedge) the problem of the complex motion of the system is easily decomposed into separate problems of the motion of each coordinate.
While the problem seems almost trivial for two bodies in two dimensions, it becomes more significant in multi-body systems in 3 dimensions such as the problem of the internal vibrations of a molecule. It is *really* helpful in molecular spectroscopy to be able to identify the orthonormal vibration modes of a molecule or complex ion.
Benzene (to take a very simple example) includes 12 atoms, each with three position coordinates and three velocity coordinates. Rather than try to represent these 72 dimensions in X-Y-Z coordinates, it is far more convenient to identify the spatial coordinates of the CoM of the molecule and its translation motion and bulk rotation first. Then the various other motions become internal motions involving the bending and stretching of molecular bonds with varying orders of symmetry. These internal motions, according to the Lagrange equations, are all completely independent of each other.
If an internal motion, for example, changes the electrostatic dipole moment of the molecule, then it will do so with a characteristic force constant, associated with a resonant frequency (in perfect analogy to simple harmonic motion of a Hooke's Law restoring force) which is generally independent of the resonant frequency of other modes of motion. Then an applied electromagnetic field which varies with the same frequency will energize that motion distinctively from all others.
The Lagrangian allows us to identify these vibrations as orthogonal coordinates (in terms of linear combinations of individual atomic motions) with the help of some Debye-Hueckel theory and applied linear algebra.
> Thomas Tom Davidson Richmond, VA
mL - 18 Oct 2007 23:42 GMT > Do you necessarily need the Lagrangian formulation? No, but in this case (with 2 degrees of freedom) the Lagrangian method is more straightforward and easier to apply.
> The point is that it (like the Hamiltonian formulation) > often tends to make things unnecessarily complicated in [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) respectively (that is the horizontal > acceleration of the particle is g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha)). No, that's wrong. Besides mg, there's a contact force from the wedge, N say, acting on the particle. That means that you need more equations. It's a good practice to start by drawing the appropriate free body diagrams.
> So accordingto Newton's third law, the horizontal force on the > wedge will be equal and opposite to the horizontal force on the > particle and thus its acceleration is -m/M*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha). No.
/mL
Thomas - 19 Oct 2007 18:01 GMT > > Do you necessarily need theLagrangianformulation? > [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > need more equations. It's a good practice to start by drawing > the appropriate free body diagrams. The horizontal component of the contact force IS exactly m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) , and since we have a closed system, this must be identical for both the particle and the wedge but with a different sign. So this should result then in the horizontal accelerations g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) for the particle and -m/ M*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) for the wedge.
But if you arrive at a different solution, why don't you post it here?
Thomas
mL - 19 Oct 2007 22:56 GMT >>> Do you necessarily need theLagrangianformulation? >> No, but in this case (with 2 degrees of freedom) the Lagrangian [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > The horizontal component of the contact force IS exactly > m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) , No - the particle accelerates! By Newton's 2nd law, F = ma, components of the two acting forces don't sum up to zero.
> ... and since we have a closed system, this > must be identical for both the particle and the wedge but with a [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > But if you arrive at a different solution, why don't you post it here? OK - some steps. Axes, and a crude FBD of particle m :
. N . / ./ +----x m | | |y | mg
F = ma (a = alpha; x' = dx/dt, x" = dx'/dt, etc):
(1) N sin(a) = mx" (2) mg - N cos(a) = my"
Similarly for the wedge (coordinate X):
(3) - N sin(a) = M X"
To solve for X" you need, besides eq (1)-(3), a kimematic equation that relates X", x" and y". Try it!
/mL
mL - 19 Oct 2007 23:25 GMT [...]
.> F = ma (a = alpha; x' = dx/dt, x" = dx'/dt, etc):
Oops, used the symbol 'a' with two different meanings there.
[...]
/mL
Thomas - 20 Oct 2007 17:24 GMT > >>> Do you necessarily need theLagrangianformulation? > >> No, but in this case (with 2 degrees of freedom) the Lagrangian [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > No - the particle accelerates! By Newton's 2nd law, F = ma, > components of the two acting forces don't sum up to zero. You still seem to be misunderstanding what I am saying: it is the overall horizontal force that is zero, not the force on the particle or wedge individually. Since there is no external horizontal force, we must have according to Newton's third law F12=-F21 and thus F=F12+F21=0.
As an example, assume you push a person on roller skates with a force F12 whilst being yourself on roller skates. If the other person has mass m1 and you have mass m2, this will accelerate the other person forwards with F12/m1 and you backwards with -F12/m2.
> > ... and since we have a closed system, this > > must be identical for both the particle and the wedge but with a [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > To solve for X" you need, besides eq (1)-(3), a kimematic > equation that relates X", x" and y". Try it! There are no further equations needed. You just need to specify N, which is N=m*g*cos(alpha) (i.e. the gravitational force acting on the particle projected on the slope of the wedge).
So according to your equations, this gives then
(1) mx'' = m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha) (2) my''= mg*(1-cos^2(alpha)) = m*g*sin^2(alpha) (3) MX'' = -m*g*sin(alpha)*cos(alpha)
which is exactly the result I gave above already.
Thomas
PD - 20 Oct 2007 17:50 GMT > > >>> Do you necessarily need theLagrangianformulation? > > >> No, but in this case (with 2 degrees of freedom) the Lagrangian [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > force, we must have according to Newton's third law F12=-F21 and thus > F=F12+F21=0. This is a common mistake. Misusing Newton's 3rd law gives the misimpression that the sum of forces is always zero. If that were true, then the 2nd law would always have zero on both sides.
Returning back to free-body diagrams, it's crucial to remember that behavior of that body (and that's the motion you're trying to solve for, recall) depends on the forces acting ON THAT BODY. You do NOT include in that list the forces that body exerts on other bodies.
The task at hand is to find the motions of the wedge and the particle -- those individual bodies -- not the motion of the combined system.
> As an example, assume you push a person on roller skates with a force > F12 whilst being yourself on roller skates. If the other person has [quoted text clipped - 44 lines] > > Thomas mL - 20 Oct 2007 19:54 GMT >>>>> Do you necessarily need theLagrangianformulation? >>>> No, but in this case (with 2 degrees of freedom) the Lagrangian [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > force, we must have according to Newton's third law F12=-F21 and thus > F=F12+F21=0. Yes, the particle and the wedge interact via a force pair N /-N [which is accounted for in eq (1) and (3)].
[...]
>>> ... and since we have a closed system, this >>> must be identical for both the particle and the wedge but with a [quoted text clipped - 29 lines] > which is N=m*g*cos(alpha) (i.e. the gravitational force acting on > the particle projected on the slope of the wedge). No, Newton's 3rd law does _not_ give you N; i.e. you need one more equation.
> So according to your equations, this gives then > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > which is exactly the result I gave above already. Yes, but this result is wrong.
/mL
bit188 - 30 Oct 2007 07:05 GMT Sorry for not getting back sooner. I figured it out -- here are my results. If there are any errors, please let me know.
Generalized coordinates are X and x, the position of the wedge and the distance along the hypotenuse from the thin edge of the wedge to m, respectively. I got
x" = [(M+m)gsin(alpha)cos(alpha)]/M+msin^2(alpha) X" = [mgsin(alpha)cos(alpha)]/M+msin^2(alpha)
Thanks.
mL - 31 Oct 2007 11:36 GMT bit188 skrev:
> Sorry for not getting back sooner. I figured it out -- here are my > results. If there are any errors, please let me know. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > x" = [(M+m)gsin(alpha)cos(alpha)]/M+msin^2(alpha) > X" = [mgsin(alpha)cos(alpha)]/M+msin^2(alpha) The result for X" looks OK (for a proper choice of the X direction), but the expression for x" can't be right. Check it by invoking momentum conservation in the X-direction for particle + wedge :
MX' + mx'cos(alpha) = const,
so MX" + mx"cos(alpha) = 0,
and x" = ...
/mel
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