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Natural Science Forum / Physics / General Physics / July 2008



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Quantum Gravity 272.93: Probable Correlation P(A<-->B) or P(X<-->Y)     vs Linear Population Correlation Coefficient E(X - E(X))(Y - E(Y))/(o_X o_Y)

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OsherD - 02 Jul 2008 02:11 GMT
From Osher Doctorow

Let's examine the relationship between Probable Correlation in
Probable Causation/Influence (PI) and the Linear Population
Correlation Coefficient (also called Linear Correlation) where the
latter is in Mainstream Probability-Statistics.   The Latter is
defined as rho, given by:

1) rho = [E[(X - E(X))(Y - E(Y))]/product of standard deviations of X
and Y

The former is:

2) P(A<-->B) = P(AB) + P(A ' B ' )

Let's assume that X and Y and standardized or normalized (in units of
standard deviations, in other words in this type of case) in (1) and
without loss of generality that their respective population means E(X)
= 0 and E(Y) = 0, thus reducing rho of (1) to:

3) rho = E(XY) for X, Y standardized with means 0

The nearest pointwise expression of which E(XY) is the average or mean
is:

4) kernel(rho) = XY

Now, in the usual notation, the Cumulative Distribution Function (cdf)
of continuous random variable X, FX(x), at point x, is:

5) FX(x) = P(X < = x)

and likewise for Y:

6) FY(y) = P(Y < = y)

and the joint cdf F(x, y) of X and Y is:

7) F(x, y) = P(X < = x, Y < = y)

To see how A and B of (2) are related to X and Y, the usual PI
procedure is to define:

8) A = {w: X(w) < = x}
9) B = {w: Y(w) < = y}

so that:

10) FX(x) = P(A), FY(y) = P(B), F(x, y) = P(AB)

Therefore, from (2):

11) P(A<-->B) = P(AB) + P(A ' B ' ) = F(x, y) + P(A ' B ' )

It turns out that as X increases, that is to say the value of X(w) = x
increases, then F(x, y) for y fixed increases or remains constant, and
so does FX(x).  Similarly as Y increases for F(x, y) for x fixed as
well as FY(y).   But the quantity XY of (4) has the same property for
X and Y both nonnegative or both nonpositive.  Therefore:

12) both P(A<-->B) (which in this type of situation is written as
P(X<-->Y) and rho or rho_XY, the respective Probable Correlation of X
and Y and the Linear Correlation (Coefficient) of X and Y, increase
together under the general conditions of the (3) statements below (11)
above.

This can also be rephrased in terms of partial derivatives being
nonnegative.

Osher Doctorow
Rolf - 02 Jul 2008 02:47 GMT
> From Osher Doctorow
>
> Let's examine the relationship between Probable Correlation

<<<<< "Probable Correlation"  >>>>>>

you mean "kOsher = Probable Dorkelation"

[we have sent our tribes to unplug your internet connection]
OsherD - 02 Jul 2008 03:54 GMT
> [we have sent our tribes to unplug your internet connection]

If you could include Obama and his wife under that unplugging,
great :>)

Osher Doctorow
dedanoe - 02 Jul 2008 04:28 GMT
> > [we have sent our tribes to unplug your internet connection]
>
> If you could include Obama and his wife under that unplugging,
> great :>)
>
> Osher Doctorow

will this faget stop the quantum gravity shiting in the public
sci.physics wc.domain?
i am fat up with it...

where the science unites with art
and philosophy unites with religion:
http://dedanoe.googlepages.com/lud_movie.html
OsherD - 02 Jul 2008 16:36 GMT
On Jul 1, 8:28 pm, dedanoe <ded
> will this faget stop the quantum gravity shiting in the public
> sci.physics wc.domain?
> i am fat up with it...
> where the science unites with art
> and philosophy unites with religion:http://dedanoe.googlepages.com/lud_movie.html

From the words "faget" and "sh.t" and "fat up," and the rambling
"science units with art and philosophy and...," I'd say you should be
fed up with yourself.  Ever try not reading articles you don't like?
You'll find that my articles are only a small portion of sci.physics
articles, if you can take your eyes off mine for long enough.

Osher Doctorow
OsherD - 02 Jul 2008 03:52 GMT
From Osher Doctorow

It's more accurate to regard both X and Y as nonnegative in the
results established above (both negative would require a slight extra
condition).

This raises an interesting question about negative real numbers on
coordinate axes, namely do such numbers accurately reflect behavior of
variables normalized into [0, 1] versus (1, infinity), or [0, 1]
versus [-1, 0), etc.?  Such different regimes, even only those cited
here, have such different behavior that there is considerable doubt
about using them except as different phases (more or less different
Universes, although parts might intersect).

For example, if 0 < x < 1, then x^2 < x (for example, (1/2)^2 = 1/4 <
1/2), but if 1 < x < infinity, then x^2 > x (or example, 3^2 = 9 >
3).   If -1 < x < 0, for example x = -1/2, then x^2 = 1/4 > -1/2.   To
incorporate these all under one law, like y = x^2, can easily confuse
these 3 different regimes, even though "formally" accurate.

Osher Doctorow
 
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