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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Relativity / September 2005



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Pentcho Valev - 28 Sep 2005 08:56 GMT
In my view, two major breakthroughs in science are unavoidable. First,
theoreticians (and philosophers of science) should remember Kant's
reaction to Hume's scepticism: physical propositions must have the same
certainty as mathematical propositions. Consider two mathematical
propositions:

A) (a - b) = b(c - d) ; b is different from 0

B) If a=b, then c=d and vice versa

Obviously, B follows from A (but A does not follow from B - compare
with Einstein's fallacy of affirming the consequent in Appendix 1 in
his "Relativity"). The conditional A->B is non-truth-functional (see
Wittgenstein's Tractatus 5.122). What is the adequate truth-table? The
only problem is the case A=false (e.g. a, b, c and d are connected by
some other equation) and B=true. It is not difficult to see that this
case is "theoretically" possible but its probability is practically
zero. So the adequate truth-table of the conditional is

A  B  A->B
T  T   T
F  T   F
T  F   F
F  F   T

So must be the truth-table of any PHYSICAL conditional whereas
Wittgenstein's arbitrary truth-table should be rejected.

The second breakthrough will be the development of an idea once
expressed by Putnam: one should be able to enumerate the propositions
of a theory by deriving them from an enumerated set of axioms. This
sounds trivial and yet it by no means corresponds to what theoreticians
and philosophers of science do. Sooner or later postscientific
explanations in terms of divine intuition will have to be replaced by
rigorous answers to the prosaic question: What follows from what?

Pentcho Valev
Dirk Van de moortel - 28 Sep 2005 09:25 GMT
> In my view, two major breakthroughs in science are unavoidable. First,
> theoreticians (and philosophers of science) should remember Kant's
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> with Einstein's fallacy of affirming the consequent in Appendix 1 in
> his "Relativity").

Of course A does not follow from B.
You don't understand what the symbols represent.

B') The transformation between coordinates (x,t) and (x',t') as used
     in two inertial frames is linear.
     If all the events on a light signal are described by a world line in
     one coordinate system with the equation x = ct, then the equation
     transforms to the equation x' = ct' in another coordinate system
     and vice versa.

A') There is a number L such that the following equation holds
     not only for events on the light signal, but for all events:
          ( x - c t ) = L * ( x' - c t' )

Then A' follows from B'.

Proof:

Linearity of the transformation means that there are numbers
P, Q, R, S such that the transformation can be written as

   {  x' = P x + Q t
   {  t' = R x + S t .

Then the transformation of the world line
   x = c t
can be found by inserting this in the transformation, giving:
   {  x' = P c t + Q t
   {  t' = R c t + S t
resulting in
   {  x' = (c P + Q) t
   {  t' = (c R + S) t
which gives after eliminating t:
   x' / t' = (c P + Q) / (c R + S)
or equivalently
   x' - (c P + Q) / (c R + S) t' = 0

Demanding that this is equivalent with
   x' - c t' = 0
implies that
   (c P + Q) / (c R + S) = c
and thus that
   (c P + Q) = c (c R + S)
and, for later use in (*):
   Q - c S = - c (P - c R)

So now we take the transformation equations and find that
they satisfy
   x' - c t' = P x + Q t - c (R x + S t)
             = (P - c R) x + (Q - c S) t
             = (P - c R) x - c (P - c R) t       (*)
             = (P - c R) (x - c t)
             = L ( x - c t ) ,
provided we take L as
   L = P - c R.

-----------

So we have proven that demanding that the world line
   x - c t = 0
gets linearly transformed into
   x' - c t' = 0 ,
implies that there is a number L such that the transformation satisfies
   x' - c t' = L ( x - c t )

Can you find the flaw in the proof, Valev?

Dirk Vdm
Pentcho Valev - 28 Sep 2005 12:22 GMT
> > In my view, two major breakthroughs in science are unavoidable. First,
> > theoreticians (and philosophers of science) should remember Kant's
[quoted text clipped - 33 lines]
>     {  x' = P x + Q t
>     {  t' = R x + S t .

Instead of introducing linearity and the above equations as axioms, you
could introduce as axioms Lorentz transforms. Then your proof would
become as straightforward as: "Assume Lorentz transforms are true; then
Lorentz transforms are true."

Pentcho Valev
Dirk Van de moortel - 28 Sep 2005 12:26 GMT
> > > In my view, two major breakthroughs in science are unavoidable. First,
> > > theoreticians (and philosophers of science) should remember Kant's
[quoted text clipped - 35 lines]
>
> Instead of introducing linearity

I did not introduce linearity.
Einstein did in his text:
   http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
    | §3. Theory of the Transformation of Co-ordinates and Times
    | from a Stationary System to another System in Uniform Motion
    | of Translation Relatively to the Former
    |...
    | In the first place it is clear that the equations must be
    | linear on account of the properties of homogeneity which we
    | attribute to space and time.
You just conveniently forgot to mention it again.
That shows that you are a troll.

> and the above equations as axioms

They are not axioms in the above equations.
You don't understand linear algebra or analytic geometry.

>, you
> could introduce as axioms Lorentz transforms. Then your proof would
> become as straightforward as: "Assume Lorentz transforms are true; then
> Lorentz transforms are true."

You never understood the concept of coordinates and
transformations and you are too blockheaded to ever
understand these concepts.
You will repeat your silly remark for ever.
But hey, don't let me stop you.

Dirk Vdm
Roberto Vescarelli - 28 Sep 2005 11:58 GMT
Dear Pentcho Valev

>So the adequate truth-table of the conditional is
>
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> So must be the truth-table of any PHYSICAL conditional whereas
> Wittgenstein's arbitrary truth-table should be rejected.

This is the truth-table of the "if and only if" double implication. So your
physical conditional is equivalence between statements.

But double implication is definible in terms of "->" and "&": p<->q =
(p->q)&(q->p). So your request is that two statements A and B form a
physical conditional "A implies B" if and only if they have the same truth
value. But we have just a connective for this, i.e. connective for
equivalence, "<->". But "ex falso sequitur quodlubet" and so your
connective for physical implication is not adequate for any case of
implication.

If you have the problem of sign up the physical implication you can see C.I.
Lewis, A Survey of Symbolic logic. Lewis read Russell's Principia finding
unsatisfied and limited its description of material implication. So
proposed that A "strictly implies" B if and only if is not possible A&
not-B. This is a modal view of implication that speacks about the modal
quality of the link between the antecedent and the consequent of an
implication.

By,

Roby

Signature

Roberto Vescarelli
http://www.faberbox.com/roby/

surrealistic-dream@hotmail.com - 28 Sep 2005 16:24 GMT
> In my view, two major breakthroughs in science are unavoidable. First,
> theoreticians (and philosophers of science) should remember Kant's
> reaction to Hume's scepticism: physical propositions must have the same
> certainty as mathematical propositions.

False, because arbitrary modeling decisions go into laying a foundation
to a theory and they need not have any certainty at all: such as the
decision to model matter as continuous, when no one believes that it
is, but hydrodynamics doesn't care.

> Obviously, B follows from A (but A does not follow from B - compare
> with Einstein's fallacy of affirming the consequent in Appendix 1 in
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> So must be the truth-table of any PHYSICAL conditional whereas
> Wittgenstein's arbitrary truth-table should be rejected.

What truth table above is called material equivalence and it is
bi-directional.

The standard truth table for implication (material implication) is:

 A  B  A->B
 T  T   T
 F  T   T
 T  F   F
 F  F   T

By the latter truth evaluations modus ponens is a tautology. By
material equivalence it is not!

It makes sense that modus ponens should be a tautology and any
contrivance to make it so is fully justified. Modus ponens is the
(tautology):

[A & (A -> B)] -> B
 
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