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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Relativity / August 2006



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Edward Green - 27 Aug 2006 19:12 GMT
Suppose we had a coordinate system on spacetime labeled u,v,w,t where t
of course is time-like, u,v,w spacelike.  Can we assert, as a matter of
convention or otherwise, that increments in t are what would be
measured by a standard clock at rest wrt the local spatial coordinates?

Are there coordinate systems where other interpretations of "dt" are
indicated?
Sorcerer - 27 Aug 2006 19:56 GMT
| Suppose we had a coordinate system on spacetime labeled u,v,w,t where t
| of course is time-like, u,v,w spacelike.  Can we assert, as a matter of
| convention or otherwise, that increments in t are what would be
| measured by a standard clock at rest wrt the local spatial coordinates?

You can if you want to.
This is PHYSICS, not math or logic, and "proof" is completely irrelevant. -
Tom Roberts.
news:P4Hqg.60105$Lm5.3167@newssvr12.news.prodigy.com

| Are there coordinate systems where other interpretations of "dt" are
| indicated?

Sure, have as many as you like.

Androcles spamspamspam
Tom Roberts - 27 Aug 2006 21:37 GMT
> Suppose we had a coordinate system on spacetime labeled u,v,w,t where t
> of course is time-like, u,v,w spacelike.  Can we assert, as a matter of
> convention or otherwise, that increments in t are what would be
> measured by a standard clock at rest wrt the local spatial coordinates?

No. For the simple reason that you could use as your t coordinate any
function of the value of a standard clock.

> Are there coordinate systems where other interpretations of "dt" are
> indicated?

Any coordinate system for which t is not the value of a standard clock
has a different interpretation. Such as the Schw. coordinates on
Schwarzschild spacetime.

And, of course, there are coordiante systens for which there is no
timelike coordinate at all; these  have two spacelike and two null
(lightlike) coordinates.

Tom Roberts
Sorcerer - 27 Aug 2006 22:35 GMT
"Tom Roberts" <tjroberts137@sbcglobal.net> wrote in message
news:P4Hqg.60105$Lm5.3167@newssvr12.news.prodigy.com...
| This is PHYSICS, not math or logic, and "proof" is completely irrelevant.
| Tom Roberts

Silly Roberts.

Androcles.
Daryl McCullough - 28 Aug 2006 17:04 GMT
Edward Green says...

>Suppose we had a coordinate system on spacetime labeled u,v,w,t where t
>of course is time-like, u,v,w spacelike.  Can we assert, as a matter of
>convention or otherwise, that increments in t are what would be
>measured by a standard clock at rest wrt the local spatial coordinates?

Definitely not. A clock doesn't measure t, it measures proper time
along its path. If a clock is stationary in your coordinate system
(that is, du/dtau = dv/dtau = dw/dtau = 0), then the elapsed time
on the clock will be given by

    tau = integral of square-root(|g_tt|) dt

That will be equal to t only in the special case g_tt = 1.

>Are there coordinate systems where other interpretations of "dt" are
>indicated?

Every coordinate system in which g_tt is different from 1. For
example, Schwarzchild coordinates in the vicinity of a black hole.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY
Edward Green - 30 Aug 2006 01:14 GMT
> Edward Green says...
> >
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
> That will be equal to t only in the special case g_tt = 1.

Ahhhhaaaaa......

It seems I had the interpretation of the metric rather bollixed up.  So
the _resultant_ of the metric contracted with the coordinate
differentials is the time increment (proper time) a local clock would
measure if the differential is time-like, and the length increment
(proper length) a local meter stick would measure if the differential
is space-like, and simply "spacetime interval" in the general case.  A
representation of the metric is a machine which outputs natural local
structure (standard clock and rod measure) from the coordinates.

That is an immense clarification: thank you.

Now, persisting in crankery, I again ask what would happen to the
metric if we "stretched" the manifold.   Again taking a one-dimensional
manifold equipped with the real coordinates and the obvious metric, and
then taking a copy of this manifold and decreeing that we have dilated
parts of it and the embedded coordinates, what happens to the metric?

Evidently, nothing!  If the local meter sticks have acquired a similar
stretch, and the metric calculates what is measured by meter sticks,
the new situation is indistinguishable from the old.  In the one
dimensional case the scoffers seem to have it: a "stretched" manifold
is indistinguishable from an unstretched one, at least using the
democratic metric which makes every clock and rod a king in its own
neighborhood.

I'm not so sure about the two dimensional case: in fact, I think the
possibility of varying the stretch of one direction along another can
be understood to lead to what is identified as curvature.
Tom Roberts - 30 Aug 2006 04:35 GMT
> the _resultant_ of the metric contracted with the coordinate
> differentials is the time increment (proper time) a local clock would
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> representation of the metric is a machine which outputs natural local
> structure (standard clock and rod measure) from the coordinates.

Yes.

> Now, persisting in crankery, I again ask what would happen to the
> metric if we "stretched" the manifold.   Again taking a one-dimensional
> manifold equipped with the real coordinates and the obvious metric, and
> then taking a copy of this manifold and decreeing that we have dilated
> parts of it and the embedded coordinates, what happens to the metric?

This depends upon how you stretch the manifold.

First consider a change of coordinates: the coordinates of a given point
P will change, reflecting the stretching, but the components of the
metric will change correspondingly, and the distance between any pair of
points remains unchanged.

Instead consider a second 1-d manifold identical to the first, and call
the first manifold M and the second N; consider a diffeomorphism f(.)
from M to N such that the image point P' in N of a point P in M is
P'=f(P) for all points P in M (and therefore all P' in N). Let the
metric be mapped appropriately so the distance between any two points P
and Q in M is the same as the distance between their image points P' and
Q' in N. Note I have said nothing about how M and N might look if one
laid them down next to each other. Do that however you like (stretching
and/or shrinking in any manner, but keeping the two manifolds adjacent
to each other); now compare points that are adjacent, instead of points
related by f(.) -- this is now a "stretching", because the distance
between pairs of adjacent points can have a different value in M than in
N. Do this smoothly and it is a diffeomorphism from M to N I'll call
g(.): P"=g(P) for all P in M (and therefore all P" in N). Note that g(.)
does NOT carry the metric, but f(.) does -- that is essential to the
notion of "stretching": the distance between P' and Q' is the same as
the distance between P and Q, but the distance between P" and Q" can be
different (each distance in the respective manifold M or N).

Now to consider a "stretching" of a single manifold rather than diffeos.
between manifolds, simply apply either f(.) or g(.) from M to M (not to
N!). it should be clear that using f(.) will preserve the distances
between points, but using g(.) will not.

> Evidently, nothing!  If the local meter sticks have acquired a similar
> stretch, and the metric calculates what is measured by meter sticks,
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> democratic metric which makes every clock and rod a king in its own
> neighborhood.

See above. This depends on how you "stretch" the manifold. If you carry
the metric with the diffeo. (the usual case, like f(.) above) then you
are correct. But if you don't carry the metric (as in g(.) above) then
this is wrong.

> I'm not so sure about the two dimensional case: in fact, I think the
> possibility of varying the stretch of one direction along another can
> be understood to lead to what is identified as curvature.

The basic idea generalizes to N dimensions. Yes indeed, varying
diffeomorphisms like g(.) appropriately can generate curvature; varying
diffeos like f(.) cannot. Note that the standard mathematical notion of
curvature of a manifold is identically zero for any 1-d manifold, even
though in everyday speech we often talk of "curved lines".

Tom Roberts
JanPB - 30 Aug 2006 06:47 GMT
> > Edward Green says...
> > >
[quoted text clipped - 38 lines]
> democratic metric which makes every clock and rod a king in its own
> neighborhood.

Right. And the only reason you can even talk about "stretching"
(undetectable in the 1D manifold itself) is that you have an extra
ingredient: the ambient context in the form of the enclosing space
containing the 1D manifold. Spacetime in GR is considered
intrinsically: there is no concept of an ambient super-duper-space
containing spacetime. This is the usual situation in differential
geometry so whenever one uses terms like curvature, it's assumed to be
intrinsic.

> I'm not so sure about the two dimensional case: in fact, I think the
> possibility of varying the stretch of one direction along another can
> be understood to lead to what is identified as curvature.

It's the same thing in the sense that this sort of distorting is really
meaningless without some extrinsic reference like the ambient space.

Mathematically this corresponds to taking any diffeomorphism of the
manifold ("distortion" except it's going to be undetectable) and
carrying the metric over using this diffeomorphism. The result is an
isometry.

--
Jan Bielawski
 
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