> Hi, guys !
> I am asking You and myself :
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> All the best ,LL
There is no difference between what Lorentz meant by "change of variables"
and transformation of coordinates between IRFs.
Phil
| Hi, guys !
| I am asking You and myself :
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
|
| All the best ,LL
The cuckoo misforms were created by Einstein as an old joke,
we've heard it before.
http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/Smart/Smart.htm
Androcles
> Hi, guys !
> I am asking You and myself :
> Do the Lorentz transforms represent after all:
> 1. A change of variables;
Prima facie.
> 2. A transformation of coordinates between different IRF ?
Provided at least one coordinate system is known to be an inertial
reference frame.
> State, please, your documented opinion referring to the case of
> uni-dimensional
> Lorentz transforms and the case of x^2 - c^2* t^2 <> 0 .
Lorentz transformations allow the spacetime interval to be an
invariant, but they don't depend on a particular spacetime interval.
> (If you know of this subject as being discussed before,
> please let me know !)
All subjects have been discussed ad infinitum, with the chaff dutifully
filed away with the wheat, so that each may have the pleasure of
winnowing.
Sorcerer - 23 Sep 2006 19:58 GMT
| > Hi, guys !
| > I am asking You and myself :
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
| filed away with the wheat, so that each may have the pleasure of
| winnowing.
And only chaff has been found.
Winnower:
http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/Rocket/Rocket.htm
Androcles
xray4abc - 24 Sep 2006 03:10 GMT
..........
> Lorentz transformations allow the spacetime interval to be an
> invariant, but they don't depend on a particular spacetime interval.
.............
> All subjects have been discussed ad infinitum, with the chaff dutifully
> filed away with the wheat, so that each may have the pleasure of
> winnowing.
I make, for myself, a clear distinction between a space-time
interval with physical meaning , i.e. with possible connection
to a length measurement, and the one defined formally
as (x^2 - c^2 * t^2) for an arbitrary point.
In this last case, the space-time interval, though invariant
Lorentz transformation-wise, varies from place to place.
>From there comes the different value of time from one
place to another, in the same IRF( !!!!! ), which I think is
a non sense.
While this is of no importance when the space-time
interval = 0, as it refers to a measurement using
signals of speed c, in my present opinion, it has no clear
and acceptable meaning if the interval<>0, other than
a formal mathematical change of variables .
I got no time for winnowing, yet I would appreciate
You and other posters at this group directing me to appropriate
sources or posts of which you know, as for example Sue just did.
All the best, LL
xray4abc - 27 Sep 2006 15:19 GMT
Hi
No appetite for this subject?
Too bad!
One could think that there is no difference between
a coordinate transformation involving 2 IRFs and
the simple replacement of variables(coordinates) .
This seems to be true, as we are talking of....
"what seem an observer see in the moving RF".
But then, the coordinates *attributed* to the moving RF
have no relevance for the moving IRF, so it is
about a simple change of the variables, is it not?
LL
> Hi, guys !
> I am asking You and myself :
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> All the best ,LL
The Lorenz transform represnts the spatial to temporal
operation that converts a time independent
Maxwell field to time dependent Maxwell field when considering
the finite speed of light.
"Retarded potential"
http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/em/lectures/node50.html
Uni-dimensional ? The transform applies to a volume of electric
charge so any but a 3s + 1t representation is incomplete in some
form or another. Several variations are discussed here:
http://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0204034
Sue...