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Natural Science Forum / Physics / Relativity / January 2007



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tensor "reverse trace" operation?

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Mike - 30 Jan 2007 17:18 GMT
The wikipedia article on the Einstein field equations makes the
statement that
  R_uv = (1/2)*R*g_uv
reduces to
  R_uv = 0
by performing the "reverse trace". Can someone explain this to me?

-Mike
Igor - 30 Jan 2007 19:02 GMT
> The wikipedia article on the Einstein field equations makes the
> statement that
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> -Mike

No performing involved.  The trace of the Einstein tensor is the same
as the trace of the Ricci tensor, except with the opposite sign.
Dumbledore_ - 30 Jan 2007 19:08 GMT
> The wikipedia article on the Einstein field equations makes the
> statement that
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> -Mike
Yes.
Eliminate the 1/2, that's a non-zero constant.
Eliminate R or the result is trivial, so all that is left is g_uv = 0.
But we knew that, everything about relativity is built on zero.
http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/DominoEffect.GIF
c = 0/0


Daryl McCullough - 30 Jan 2007 21:17 GMT
>The wikipedia article on the Einstein field equations makes the
>statement that
>   R_uv = (1/2)*R*g_uv
>reduces to
>   R_uv = 0
>by performing the "reverse trace". Can someone explain this to me?

Hmm. I'm not sure what is meant by "reverse trace", but I do
understand the conclusion:

Start with
   R_uv = 1/2 R g_uv

multiplying both sides by g^uv and summing gives

   sum over u,v of R_uv g^uv = sum over u,v 1/2 R g_uv g^uv

The left side gives, by definition, R.
The right side gives 2R (because sum over u,v  g_uv g^uv = 4).

so we have

   R = 2R

which implies R=0.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY
Mike - 31 Jan 2007 00:10 GMT
Thanks Daryl, I think I understand.

That raises another question though.
What guarantee is there that g_uv is symmetric?

-Mike
JanPB - 31 Jan 2007 00:17 GMT
> Thanks Daryl, I think I understand.
>
> That raises another question though.
> What guarantee is there that g_uv is symmetric?

Its definition.

--
Jan Bielawski
 
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