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Re: michelson morley experiment
| Harry | 13 Apr 2006 12:20 |
> >> >>In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set > >> >>exactly equal. [quoted text clipped - 50 lines] > the swimmers and the river is meaningless and the crucial details > about the MM experiment are not explained on that web page. As you have read below (you did, right?), such an analogy is no good for questions relating to momentum conservation. The analogy was only intended (but never proved!) to be valid for calculating the propagation *speed* of a wave that propagates through a moving medium. Assuming that it's indeed valid for a wave that is skewed relative to the medium, then you get the factor gamma for the total time delay, and gamma^2 for 0/180 degrees. The difference is a factor gamma, and that's what M-M expected to be able to measure.
Harald
> >Take a friend and a couple of megaphones out to a field on a windy day. > > Use your megaphone to shout to your friend while he uses his to [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > > >Bruce Richmond |
| darkknight | 12 Apr 2006 22:56 |
>> >>In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set >> >>exactly equal. [quoted text clipped - 42 lines] >perpendicular to your direction of motion? Light doesn't work that >way, so your analogy is flawed. It's not my analogy. Judging by the URL, the University of Virginia physics department is responsible for the analogy.
Since I didn't get an answer to my question about the siwmmers and the river that made any sense to me I will assume that the analogy with the swimmers and the river is meaningless and the crucial details about the MM experiment are not explained on that web page.
Darkknight.
>Take a friend and a couple of megaphones out to a field on a windy day. > Use your megaphone to shout to your friend while he uses his to [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > >Bruce Richmond |
| bsr3997@my-deja.com | 12 Apr 2006 04:44 |
> >>In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set > >>exactly equal. [quoted text clipped - 38 lines] > > Thanks Do you think you need to aim a flashlight up stream to hit a target perpendicular to your direction of motion? Light doesn't work that way, so your analogy is flawed.
Take a friend and a couple of megaphones out to a field on a windy day. Use your megaphone to shout to your friend while he uses his to determine the direction the sound comes from. You will find that he does not hear the sound come from up wind or down wind but straight from you. You will find it is best to aim straight at him, not up wind or down wind. So sound, which is carried by a medium, does not behave the way you predict either.
It's not so easy to disprove the aether when you use what really happens as opposed to poor analogies.
Bruce Richmond
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| darkknight | 11 Apr 2006 21:50 |
>>In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set >>exactly equal. [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] >that there would be no fringe shift. But the 'earlier' ether theory was >badly interpreted and was thought that it it predicted a fringe shift. So if I calculate the phase relationship between the two swimmers that are described here http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/michelson.html will I find any change if I "rotate the apparatus" i.e. if the direction of the current in the river is changed?
If I change the direction of the current in the river, the two swimmers won't make it back to the original starting point unless I also change the direction they swim, but if I change the direction they swim, this is no longer the equivalent of the MM experiment, so the fact that the two swimmers make it back to the starting point at different times when the river is flowing parallel to the river bank, proves nothing ??
Since the MM apparatus doesn't change the direction the "swimmers" swim in, won't this produce a fringe shift as the apparatus is rotated, according to the ether theory being tested?
Thanks
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| rotchm@gmail.com | 11 Apr 2006 17:10 |
>In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set >exactly equal. They originally set it up that way. Of course, one can not have *exactly* same lengths but within error bars was the same length. Then other similar setups were done with different arm lengths. See Kennedy-Thorndyke.
>If not, did the experiment >"rely" on the fact that there was no change in the interference >fringes when the apparatus was rotated? It did not *rely* on that fact. I was setup to find what would happen if rotated.
>Did the MM experiment demonstrate anything about the constancy of the >speed of light or did it merely "disprove" the aether theory? It (as was already known) showed that the TWLS was constant. It did not disprove (modern) ehter theory because ether theory predicts that there would be no fringe shift. But the 'earlier' ether theory was badly interpreted and was thought that it it predicted a fringe shift.
--- If you want to be sure, then always doubt }:-)
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| darkknight | 10 Apr 2006 23:20 |
Hi
In the MM experiment, was the length of the two light paths set exactly equal. If so, how was this done? If not, did the experiment "rely" on the fact that there was no change in the interference fringes when the apparatus was rotated?
Did the MM experiment demonstrate anything about the constancy of the speed of light or did it merely "disprove" the aether theory?
Does this website have any credibility in mainstream physics? http://home.iprimus.com.au/longhair1/page1.html
Thanks.
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